S
Seeker2010
Guest
You continue to dodge my question, so let me attempt to make it a little simpler.Just one question this time (one I’ve already asked): are you familiar with the common logical fallacies (and, obviously, why using a fallacious argument is not a good idea if you’re interested in getting at the truth)?
I’m not here to discuss logical fallacies, and if you believe I am making a logical fallacy, please point it out rather than continue to ask me if I understand logical fallacies. Rest assured that I do.
Assumption: God is authorized to declare what is sinful, and what is not.
Assumption: Man is NOT authorized to declare acts sinful that God has not so declared, nor to declare acts not sinful likewise.
Assumption: The bible, and only the bible, is the ‘word of God’.
Fact: The catholic church declares that using birth control is a mortal sin.
Fact: Birth control is not mentioned in the bible as being a sin. In fact, I don’t believe it’s mentioned at all.
Question: Upon what divine statement is the church basing their declaration that birth control is sinful? From where does the church get the authority to declare it a sin when God himself has remained mute on the subject?
Comment: I don’t care to debate birth control, as previously mentioned I merely put it up as an example. I am just trying to understand from where the church is getting their information that God thinks birth control is a sin when it’s not mentioned in the document we are told is his word. It’s a fairly simple question, and yes I have asked more or less the same thing several times, because neither you nor anyone else has made even an attempt to answer it.
If you feel that the act of asking this question amounts to an attack on your faith, then your faith is weaker then you give it credit for. As I have previously opined, a faith that cannot stand up to scrutiny has no credibility to begin with. If it is not true, blind obedience will not change that, and if it is, questions will not harm it.