TertiumQuid,
TertiumQuid:
Just curious, what is the official RCC definition of "profound Heretic, and how is it different than the definition of “heretic”? If you read my words carefully, you will note I commented on “profound heretic”
“Profound” is not part of a technical term, but merely a noun modifier. Webster’s dictionary can describes it better than I can. Was Luther a profound heretic? If by “profound” one is describing Luther as: “having intellectual depth and insight … difficult to fathom or understand”, then yes, I’d have to agree.
Yet, there is a difference between a material heretic and a formal heretic, according to Catholic doctrine. The latter is a damnable sin, while the former is not necessarily damnable, depending upon whether one has “full consciousness” of the intellect with regard to the gravity of the sin, and/or whether one does or does not have impediments to the freedom of will such that the sin can be no longer described as freely chosen or deliberate.
The question for you: Is Luther your brother in Christ?
Certainly. Yet, he was a heretic. A profound one at that. Whether he was a formal or material heretic is solely the judgment of God. Still heresy, while not necessarily a mortal sin in every circumstance, is still a sin which is harmful to the soul and to the Church, and as such, excommunication is a prudent response to heresy.
If though, you are correct, and Protestants are “heretics” why are you talking to me?
Now you’re just being silly, aren’t you? Surely you don’t presume to know more about Catholic canon law than I do, do you? The Church has the power to bind, but it also has the power to loose. If I were living in 1917, I certainly would be in violation of canon law by publically debating religion with a heretic. Yet, I don’t live in 1917. I am instead bound by the 1983 Code of Canon Law and the decrees and constitutions of Vatican II which abrogate such a prohibition. Have you read these? If so, you wouldn’t have asked such a silly question.
What is Luther’s argument against the book of James?
That it’s “justified by works and not by faith alone” verse was contrary to the Epistle of Romans, which he tragically and knowingly modified in his translation by adding words that were not present in the Greek manuscripts. He was quite wrong, wasn’t he?
I’m quite aware of the non-uniformity of Sacred Scripture until the end of the fourth century, and even some disagreements as to the inspired nature of some books of the canon, however limited it was, between the 4th and 16th centuries. However, I suggest Luther didn’t really accept any scholarship as authoritative except Luther’s.

I also suggest the universal acceptance of the canon was abundantly clear, albeit not yet definitive (i.e. believe or anathema) at the Council of Florence, which was a century prior to the Reformation.
One can quote from St. Jerome’s scholarship as their authority, as many Protestants polemically attempt, but the fact remains that the judgment of the Churches was even more clear in the 16th century than it was in the 4th century. St. Jerome accepted the judgment of the Churches despite his personal opinion, and Luther did not (e.g., Jerome accepted the Theodotian (2nd century Jewish) recession of Daniel, did he not? Why didn’t Luther? Why don’t those who polemically claim to merely accept Jerome’s scholarship accept Jerome’s acceptance of Theodotian’s recession of Daniel?).