The Protestant Reformers

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TertiumQuid:
As to your point about Luther being “a profound heretic” I would suggest that you are somewhat out of date with Catholic scholarship’s opinion on Luther:

%between%

James Swan
If Protestantism is a heresy why would Luther not be a heretic?
 
TertiumQuid,

The Church’s definition of “heresy”…

“**Heresy is the obstinate post-baptismal denial of some truth which must be believed with divine and catholic faith, or it is likewise an obstinate doubt concerning the same

According to the Catholic Church since the 16th century, didn’t Martin Luther obstinantly deny truths that must be believed with divine and catholic faith? If the Catholic Church has changed it’s mind on this, can you provide the magisterial text which did so?
 
To Understand that he was not Scripture only…
Quote:
God writes the Gospel not in the Bible alone, but also on trees, and in the flowers and clouds and stars.
Yes, but appearantly not in the Epistle of James :rolleyes:
 
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itsjustdave1988:
TertiumQuid,The Church’s definition of “heresy”…"***Heresy ***is the obstinate post-baptismal denial of some truth which must be believed with divine and catholic faith, or it is likewise an obstinate doubt concerning the same"According to the Catholic Church since the 16th century, didn’t Martin Luther obstinantly deny truths that must be believed with divine and catholic faith? If the Catholic Church has changed it’s mind on this, can you provide the magisterial text which did so?
Hi Dave,

Just curious, what is the official RCC definition of "profound Heretic, and how is it different than the definition of “heretic”? If you read my words carefully, you will note I commented on “profound heretic”

I have an interesting little book right here called “Catholic Beliefs From A to Z” written by Alfred Mcbride, O.Praem. He says:
“In general, a Protestant is a baptized Christian…who believes in Christ and does not accept Catholic faith in its entirety but has recieved the gift of the Holy Spirit and grace.” (p.134)
The question for you: Is Luther your brother in Christ?

I agree with a statement quoted aprovingly by the Catholic historian Sebastian Merkle:
The Reformation was not spread and held by heretics and philosophers, but by men who were really searching for a religion for the heart.
If though, you are correct, and Protestants are “heretics” why are you talking to me?-
"By a decree of Alexander IV (1254-1261) inserted in “Sextus Decretalium”, Lib. V, c. ii, and still in force, all laymen are forbidden, under threat of excommunication, to dispute publicly or privately with heretics on the Catholic Faith. The text reads: “Inhibemus quoque, ne cuiquam laicæ personæ liceat publice vel privatim de fide catholicâ disputare. Qui vero contra fecerit, excommunicationis laqueo innodetur.” (We furthermore forbid any lay person to engage in dispute, either private or public, concerning the Catholic Faith. Whosoever shall act contrary to this decree, let him be bound in the fetters of excommunication.)
 
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itsjustdave1988:
Yes, but appearantly not in the Epistle of James :rolleyes:
What is Luther’s argument against the book of James? A major part of his argument is that James was a second century Christian, and not an eyewitness. Did Luther simply arrive here with no basis? No. Throughout his career, he maintained a position that echoed other Church Fathers:
“Up to the fourth century the Epistle of James was not included in the canon by many Christian leaders, and earlier writers did not quote from it. Cf. Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History, II, 23, 25.” (LW 54:424)
“In the earliest general history of the church, Eusebius: The Ecclesiastical History (II, xxiii, 25), the author (died ca. 339) writes, “Such is the story of James, whose is said to be the first of the Epistles called Catholic. It is to be observed that its authenticity is denied, since few of the ancients quote it, as is also the case with the Epistle called Jude’s.” Lake, op. cit, I, 179. Eusebius also includes both epistles in his list of “Disputed Books” (History, III, xxiv, 3). Lake, op. cit., I, 257. Cf. the statement by Jerome (d. 420) in his Liber de Viris Illustribus (II) concerning the pseudonymity ascribed to the epistle of James and its rather gradual attainment of authoritative status. Migne 23, 609.48 Cf. p. 362, nn. 11, 12. “(LW 35:396)
“There was in practice considerable lack of unanimity on the extent of the New Testament canon even in the late Middle Ages. Erasmus’ critical attitude toward these four books (James, Jude, Hebrews, Revelation), known to Luther from his Annotationes to his 1516 Greek New Testament, was openly accepted by the Catholic Cajetan.” (LW 35:393, footnote 43).
 
TertiumQuid,
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TertiumQuid:
Just curious, what is the official RCC definition of "profound Heretic, and how is it different than the definition of “heretic”? If you read my words carefully, you will note I commented on “profound heretic”

“Profound” is not part of a technical term, but merely a noun modifier. Webster’s dictionary can describes it better than I can. Was Luther a profound heretic? If by “profound” one is describing Luther as: “having intellectual depth and insight … difficult to fathom or understand”, then yes, I’d have to agree.

Yet, there is a difference between a material heretic and a formal heretic, according to Catholic doctrine. The latter is a damnable sin, while the former is not necessarily damnable, depending upon whether one has “full consciousness” of the intellect with regard to the gravity of the sin, and/or whether one does or does not have impediments to the freedom of will such that the sin can be no longer described as freely chosen or deliberate.
The question for you: Is Luther your brother in Christ?

Certainly. Yet, he was a heretic. A profound one at that. Whether he was a formal or material heretic is solely the judgment of God. Still heresy, while not necessarily a mortal sin in every circumstance, is still a sin which is harmful to the soul and to the Church, and as such, excommunication is a prudent response to heresy.

If though, you are correct, and Protestants are “heretics” why are you talking to me?

Now you’re just being silly, aren’t you? Surely you don’t presume to know more about Catholic canon law than I do, do you? The Church has the power to bind, but it also has the power to loose. If I were living in 1917, I certainly would be in violation of canon law by publically debating religion with a heretic. Yet, I don’t live in 1917. I am instead bound by the 1983 Code of Canon Law and the decrees and constitutions of Vatican II which abrogate such a prohibition. Have you read these? If so, you wouldn’t have asked such a silly question.

What is Luther’s argument against the book of James?

That it’s “justified by works and not by faith alone” verse was contrary to the Epistle of Romans, which he tragically and knowingly modified in his translation by adding words that were not present in the Greek manuscripts. He was quite wrong, wasn’t he?

I’m quite aware of the non-uniformity of Sacred Scripture until the end of the fourth century, and even some disagreements as to the inspired nature of some books of the canon, however limited it was, between the 4th and 16th centuries. However, I suggest Luther didn’t really accept any scholarship as authoritative except Luther’s. :rolleyes: I also suggest the universal acceptance of the canon was abundantly clear, albeit not yet definitive (i.e. believe or anathema) at the Council of Florence, which was a century prior to the Reformation.

One can quote from St. Jerome’s scholarship as their authority, as many Protestants polemically attempt, but the fact remains that the judgment of the Churches was even more clear in the 16th century than it was in the 4th century. St. Jerome accepted the judgment of the Churches despite his personal opinion, and Luther did not (e.g., Jerome accepted the Theodotian (2nd century Jewish) recession of Daniel, did he not? Why didn’t Luther? Why don’t those who polemically claim to merely accept Jerome’s scholarship accept Jerome’s acceptance of Theodotian’s recession of Daniel?).
 
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itsjustdave1988:
Certainly. Yet, he was a heretic. A profound one at that. Whether he was a formal or material heretic is solely the judgment of God. Still heresy, while not necessarily a mortal sin in every circumstance, is still a sin which is harmful to the soul and to the Church, and as such, excommunication is a prudent response to heresy.
The papal court theolgian Prierias wrote an offical papal treaty codemning Luther as a heretic, which was sent to Luther along with an offical summons to Rome. As Heiko Oberman explains,

“The papal legate in Augsburg was instructed to have Luther, who was already designated a heretic, arrested if he refused to recant. Two days later, on August 25, the Saxon provinicial was ordered to have Luther seized and imprisoned, ‘bound hand and foot.’”

-snip-

“Luther traveled to Augsburg convinced that he would suffer a martyr’s death if he did not recant.”

-snip-

(Heiko Oberman, Luther:Man Between God and the Devil, p. 194-196)

Dave, i have no idea who you are, so you could be a papal lawyer for all I know, staying up all night studying the stuff. (I ask slighly sarcastic…) did the papacy during Luther’s time make this distinction of “formal and material” heretics, and if so, which was Luther? They didn’t seem to have a problem handing him over to the Emperor for certain death. You seem to be a little more “tolerant” than your Catholic forefathers.
That it’s “justified by works and not by faith alone” verse was contrary to the Epistle of Romans, which he tragically and knowingly modified in his translation by adding words that were not present in the Greek manuscripts. He was quite wrong, wasn’t he?
I suggest you go back and first re-read what i said. I said something like “a major part of his argument…”. Key word: major. Since you appear to be an astute pupil, I won’t bore you with my simplistic regurgitation of what Luther said, in context, about the book of james, and how it correlates to what I posted to you previously.
However, I suggest Luther didn’t really accept any scholarship as authoritative except Luther’s. :rolleyes:
Thanks for the suggestion, however, Luther was a Doctor of Theology, I believe the highest degree one could achieve during his time period. Luther, like many who came before him, studied the opinions of many. A cursory reading of anything by Luther usually shows he agreed with some ideas, and disagreed with some others. Surely you don’t believe every opinion from every Church father?
I also suggest the universal acceptance of the canon was abundantly clear, albeit not yet definitive (i.e. believe or anathema) at the Council of Florence, which was a century prior to the Reformation
Would you care to explain the opinions of Erasmus & Cajetan, two of the greatest Catholic minds during the 16th Century? I’d love to hear about what they thought about the book of James.
 
TertiumQuid,

I’m quite familiar with Luther’s condemnation as a heretic. I’m not denying that he was a heretic. You seem to have read some favorable comments about Luther from some Catholic theologians and concluded the Church had changed her mind about Luther’s heresy. That’s incorrect.
did the papacy during Luther’s time make this distinction of “formal and material” heretics, and if so, which was Luther?
Yes. The Catholic Church distinguished between formal and material sins (heresy being one type of sin), even before Luther.

“Mortal sin is defined by St. Augustine (Contra Faustum, XXII, xxvii) as “Dictum vel factum vel concupitum contra legem æternam”, i.e. something said, done or desired contrary to the eternal law, or a thought, word, or deed contrary to the eternal law. … It explains well the material and formal elements of sin. The words “dictum vel factum vel concupitum” denote the material element of sin, a human act: “contra legem æternam”, the formal element.” (Catholic Encyclopedia (1909) - “Sin”)

The Catholic Church has, since before Luther’s time, taught that a human act committed either without full constent of the will, or with invincible ignorance, is not a mortal sin. (cf., St. Thomas Aquinas, *Summa Theologica, *IIa, 88, 6). Whether Luther acted with full consent of his will and intellect (i.e., formal sin) in his heresy is, like I said earlier, only known to God. So, Luther was most certainly a heretic, a profound one at that, but whether he was a formal heretic or merely a material heretic is only known to God, as the judge would have to know the impediments to the will and intellect, and only God can know this with certainty.

According to St. Thomas Aquinas, ignorance itself is a sin, unless it is invincible. If one commits an act out of invincible ignorance with regard to the gravity of the transgression, then one is not guilty of sin. Such impediments to the intellect and will have always been considered by Catholic moral theology, to diminish the guilt of a transgression.

From St. Thomas Aquinas:
If the ignorance be such as to excuse sin altogether, as the ignorance of a madman or an imbecile, then he that commits fornication in a state of such ignorance, commits no sin either mortal or venial. But if the ignorance be not invincible, then the ignorance itself is a sin, and contains within itself the lack of the love of God,** in so far as a man neglects to learn** those things whereby he can safeguard himself in the love of God.

… a sin which is generically mortal, can become venial by reason of the imperfection of the act, because then it does not completely fulfil the conditions of a moral act, since it is not a deliberate … This happens by a kind of subtraction, namely, of deliberate reason. And since a moral act takes its species from deliberate reason, the result is that by such a subtraction the species of the act is destroyed. (*Summa Theologica, *IIa, 88, 6)
You said:
Surely you don’t believe every opinion from every Church father?
No. But unlike Luther, and very much like St. Jerome, I assent to the judgment of the Churches. I don’t have the liberty to pick and choose what books, chapters, and verses belong to Holy Writ, for example.
 
TertiumQuid,
Would you care to explain the opinions of Erasmus & Cajetan, two of the greatest Catholic minds during the 16th Century?
Whether they are two of the greatest Catholic minds of the 16th century is rather speculative, and in the case of Erasmus at least, quite a stretch. Erasmus was certainly the most important German humanist in his day, but since his first publications he was quite antagonistic to the Church, so I’d say he was a lousy Catholic.

Since the canon of Sacred Scripture was not yet a *de fide *definition of the Catholic faith until the Council of Trent, Cajetan, et. al., were free to hold a different view as to what books of the canon were inspired and which were not. After Trent, to do so would be heresy. Despite these differing views, the canon of Scripture was universally held to be the same as that described by the Ecumenical Council of Florence in the 15th century, which had been the same list of books since the 4th century canons.
 
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itsjustdave1988:
Since the canon of Sacred Scripture was not yet a *de fide *definition of the Catholic faith until the Council of Trent, Cajetan, et. al., were free to hold a different view as to what books of the canon were inspired and which were not. After Trent, to do so would be heresy. Despite these differing views, the canon of Scripture was universally held to be the same as that described by the Ecumenical Council of Florence in the 15th century, which had been the same list of books since the 4th century canons.
So Luther’s removal of the Books prior to Trent was not heresy?
 
No, Luther’s removal of books after Hippo and Carthage is heresy. The Council of Trent happened several years after Luther’s reinvention of the Canon of Scripture.
 
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Apologia100:
No, Luther’s removal of books after Hippo and Carthage is heresy. The Council of Trent happened several years after Luther’s reinvention of the Canon of Scripture.
So you would deny Dave’s assertion that the canon was not De Fide belief until Trent? I so, what of the opinions of Cajetan and Erasmus (among quite a few medivals who had strong suspicions about various parts of the canon)?

ken
 
One thing you ought to keep in mind, inspiration and canonization are not the same thing. Luther made up his own canon. Cardinal Cajetan did not. Yet, Cardinal Cajetan did indeed believe that some books of the canon of Scripture were not inspired. His opinion (held prior to Trent) was not heretical, nor did it re-establish the canon of Scripture, as the canons of the Church do not rely upon the opinions of theologians, but upon the judgment of the Church.

If Luther had done nothing but hold that some books of the canon were not inspired, he would not have been a heretic (prior to Trent). Unfortunately, his heresy was more profound than merely holding opinions similar to Cardinal Cajetan with regard to the inspiration of some books of Scripture.
 
Luther’s removal of books after Hippo and Carthage is heresy
I’d say it was unlawful, but not not strictly heretical.

Local synods cannot define *de fide *dogmas of the Catholic Church. St. John of Damascus, Syria (675-749) was not bound by the Synods of Hippo and Carthage. He did not count the Book of Wisdom or Sirach among the OT books, for example. (cf. St. John Damascene, *Exact Exposition of the Orthodox Faith, *Book IV, Ch. XVII). He too was not heretical for his contrary opinion.
 
Hi Dave,
I’m quite familiar with Luther’s condemnation as a heretic. I’m not denying that he was a heretic. You seem to have read some favorable comments about Luther from some Catholic theologians and concluded the Church had changed her mind about Luther’s heresy. That’s incorrect.
I know Catholics think Luther is a heretic. Even Joseph Lortz, who I cited above, concluded Luther was a heretic. What I despise (in the strongest sense) is Luther vilification. I ventured onto these boards a few weeks back, and one of the first threads I read was that dreadful compilation of out-of-context Luther quotes and Luther-bashing. My point (which I have made many times in the last few weeks) is that many 19th-20th Century Roman Catholic Scholars do not partake in such inanity. They are able to delve into Luther’s theology, read it in context, and form intelligent opinions, without attacking Luther’s character.

An interesting sociological type thing that I find, is that many Catholics will conclude that Luther is their Christian brother. You in fact agreed that Luther was your brother in Christ. Exsurge Domine implies the execution of Luther as a heretic. As Philiip Schaff has pointed out when reviewing the bull,

“For the person of Luther, the Pope professes fatherly love and forbearance, and entreats him once more, by the mercies of God and the blood of Christ, to repent and recant within sixty days after the publication of the bull in the Brandenburg, Meissen, and Merseburg dioceses, and promises to receive him graciously like the prodigal son. But failing to repent, he and his adherents will be cut off, as withered branches, from the vine of Christ, and be punished as obstinate heretics. This means that they shall be burned; for the bull expressly condemns the proposition of Luther which denounces the burning of heretics as “contrary to the will of the Holy Spirit.” All princes, magistrates, and citizens are exhorted, on threat of excommunication and promise of reward, to seize Luther and his followers, and to hand him over to the apostolic chair. Places which harbor him or his followers are threatened with the interdict. Christians are forbidden to read, print, or publish any of his books, and are commanded to burn them.
Source: bible.org/docs/history/schaff/vol7/schaf117.htm

When Catholics like yourself admit that Luther is your brother in Christ, I wonder what Pope Leo would think of your opinion, or The Council of Florence, which declared the following:
“It firmly believes, professes, and proclaims that those not living within the Catholic Church, not only pagans, but also Jews and heretics and schismatics cannot become participants in eternal life, but will depart “into everlasting fire which was prepared for the devil and his angels” [Matt. 25:41], unless before the end of life the same have been added to the flock; and that the unity of the ecclesiastical body is so strong that only to those remaining in it are the sacraments of the Church of benefit for salvation, and do fastings, almsgiving, and other functions of piety and exercises of Christian service produce eternal reward, and that no one, whatever almsgiving he has practiced, even if he has shed blood for the name of Christ, can be saved, unless he has remained in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.”
Luther never repented. According to the above quote, Luther cannot become a participant in eternal life. How is it possible then for you to conclude that Luther is your brother in Christ? Pope Leo and the Council of Florence seem at odds with itsjustDave.
 
Luther made up his own canon. Cardinal Cajetan did not…If Luther had done nothing but hold that some books of the canon were not inspired, he would not have been a heretic (prior to Trent). Unfortunately, his heresy was more profound than merely holding opinions similar to Cardinal Cajetan with regard to the inspiration of some books of Scripture.
Hi Dave,

Find me any complete version of Luther’s Bible in which books are missing.Luther translated all the books of the Bible (and also the apocrypha). None were removed.
"Luther’s prefaces, however, brought something new by means of which he revealed his understanding of the Scriptures, namely a set of value judgments and a ranking of the books into categories. For him the Gospel of John and the epistles of Paul as well as I Peter, rank as “the true kernel and marrow of all the books.” As books of secondary rank come Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation. While Luther’s assigning of a standard of values to the New Testament books may have been simply an act of religious devotion, it proved to be also, as Holl readily points out, a pioneering step toward modern biblical scholarship. Luther’s prefaces are thus more than simply popular introductions for lay readers. They reveal a theological position of Christocentricity which inevitably affects his understanding of the New Testament canon.” Source: LW 35: 231-232
Luther held that some books are more important than others. He gave his interpretation of which one’s he thought they were. Had he been the anarchist some think he was, then he would have removed books from the Bible. But he removed none, all were included. Luther was a Doctor of theology, and was concerned that some of the books were not written directly by the apostles.

Luther was given authority to be a Doctor of sacred Scripture by the Roman Catholic Church. He was given an education which included studying canon issues. Therefore, in regards to Luther dismissing books on the ground of apostolicity, the Roman Church gave him the authority to study the issue. It also gave Cajetan the same thing.
 
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Apologia100:
No, Luther’s removal of books after Hippo and Carthage is heresy. The Council of Trent happened several years after Luther’s reinvention of the Canon of Scripture.
Same for you too: find my any complete translation of Luther’s Bible that is missing books. Fact is, during the sixteenth century Luther even translated the apocrypha.
 
TertiumQuid,
… without attacking Luther’s character.
You may think quoting Luther is equivalent to attacking Luther’s character, but I do not.
Find me any complete version of Luther’s Bible in which books are missing.Luther translated all the books of the Bible (and also the apocrypha). None were removed.
Nice attempt at quibbling, but placing Biblical books in an appendix while contrasting, for example the Epistle of St. James to “**all the genuine sacred books” **makes is seem pretty clear that he didn’t consider it a “genuine sacred book.” Did he not state in his preface to the Epistles of St. James: "I therefore refuse him a place among the writers of the true canon of my bible"?
 
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itsjustdave1988:
You may think quoting Luther is equivalent to attacking Luther’s character, but I do not.
You missed my point. I object to spurious quoting of Luther that ignores the context of his words, or the polemical context of the situation. Quoting Luther is fine, as long as one attempts to be fair. I was encouraged in my study of 19th-20th century Catholic scholarship that focused on Luther’s theology, rather than following in the footsteps of Cochlaeus. Unfortunately, many Cyber-Catholic-warriors love doing that Jerry Springer type approach with Luther.
Nice attempt at quibbling, but placing Biblical books in an appendix while contrasting, for example the Epistle of St. James to “**all the genuine sacred books” **makes is seem pretty clear that he didn’t consider it a “genuine sacred book.” Did he not state in his preface to the Epistles of St. James: "I therefore refuse him a place among the writers of the true canon of my bible"?
Seems to me I dismantled your comparrison of Luther and Cajetan.

Luther said,
Therefore I cannot include him among the chief books, though I would not thereby prevent anyone from including or extolling him as he pleases, for there are otherwise many good sayings in him.”
 
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