A thing that is unknown is not the same as a thing known to be false.
Agreed. Yet, youāre about to step in it, big time. Watch outā¦
Nowhere in the Old Testament does it stipulate that the Messiah (Moschiach) would be a divine person or that God is a trinity, or that the Messiah would found a new religious organization based in Rome, or thatā¦well basically most of it! All of those things were āunknowns.ā That doesnāt mean that they were things known to be false right?
And⦠there you go.
No, at the time the OT was written, these things werenāt known. Yet, as Christians, we believe that at that time, Divine Revelation was not yet complete. Rather, we believe that public revelation ceased at the death of the last apostle.
This has disastrous consequences for your little thought experiment. Your whole case hinges on an implicit assumption that youāre making: since things werenāt fully revealed in the OT, then itās possible that they werenāt fully revealed in the NT. To a Christian, that dog just donāt hunt. We believe that God revealed himself not only in the OT, but in the words of Christ (and in the teachings of His apostles).
You cannot make a case here that will satisfy a Catholic, since your case explicitly requires that we assent that doctrine is created wholecloth by a pope or the magisterium. Moreover, it requires that we buy into the notion that the revelation in the NT is somehow less important than that in the OT.
(Now, I understand that
you personally donāt believe in the NT, but you canāt make your case on a belief that only you hold and we do not. Your insistence that your case holds speaks volumes about the blinders that youāre wearing, as well as your misunderstandings of what weāre saying.)
Nowhere in the New Testament does it definitely declare that Mary was sinless
The implication of āΧαįæĻε κεĻαĻιĻĻμĪνηā is
precisely so.
The interpretation of Mt 1:25 ā in particular, the āį¼ĻĻ Īæį½ā part of āĪæį½Īŗ į¼Ī³ĪÆĪ½ĻĻκεν αį½Ļὓν į¼ĻĻ Īæį½ į¼Ļεκεν Ļ
į¼±Ļνā ā says that this is so.
as youāve pointed out, Jesus himself used the language of āTrinityā, even if He did not use the term itself.
that the elements of communion change substance
The explanation of ātransubstantiationā is an explanation of what Jesus meant in the Bread of Life discourse, as well as in the Institution Narratives.
So, yeah⦠Divine Revelation
does tell us these things. Where we need explanations, we turn to those whom Jesus promised would be able to teach us (doctrine) without error ā the Church, as protected by the Advocate (i.e., the Holy Spirit).
(Again, you may not personally believe this to be so, but this belief isnāt sufficient to act as proof against our claims.)
If it did, the history of Christianity wouldnāt have been such a bloody and contentious battle over the essential doctrines of the faith right? I mean, millions of protestants are reading an essentially similar text and coming to wildly divergent conclusions. Is that a characteristic of a clear and unambiguous text?
No⦠thatās a characteristic of a humanity that chooses its own interpretation above that which has been given by God. If you can find a verse that says that Scripture is āclear and unambiguous textā, as promised by God, Iād love to see itā¦
How to reconcile this while maintaining that the true Catholic faith existed whole and entire since the time of the apostles?
What are you quoting here? This seems to be the root of your argument, and therefore, the root of your misunderstanding. Can you quote to me, please, what youāre citing here?
Iāll stop here and continue responding in another post. This question Iāve just asked is important enough for me to hope youāll respond to itā¦