R
ralphinal
Guest
Specifically, no, but in general yes.Ralph, can you give me an example of how a sentence , by translation, changes from being anti-semitic to the opposite?
It is all about word choice. Let’s say the original line says something like “Those who follow the Jews in Jerusalem and not Allah should be slain with the sword.” Now, we can say that this is against Judaism clearly. But, instead of that, what if we change it to “Those who are non-believers in Jerusalem should be slain with the sword.” Suddenly, you can argue that it is not about Jews. At the same time, the inverse is also possible.
Word choice in the Qur’an, from what I can tell, is very abiguous. It seems like it was written so that it could be anti-Jew or anti-Christian or passed off as not. Non-Beleivers at times is used to mean non-Muslims in general and at other times to mean non-Muslims who fight against Islam. What it means to fight against Islam also seems to not be clearly defined.
If Christians attack Muslims first, it is an attack on Islam and war. If Muslims attack Christians first, it is needed to help us find the true faith.