The "rapture" and dispensationalism vs. modernism

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Pre-millennial dispensationalism took off in America in the 1910’s and 20’s. I think it was in response to modernism? (similair to chialism’s response to the gnostics in the first century)

Is this the main reason or are there other factors? It had to be a response to something going on in America at the time, or it probably would have spread so quickly.

Does anyone know of a good article talking about the dynamics of this? I can’t find one.

Thank you. 🙂
 
Pre-millennial dispensationalism took off in America in the 1910’s and 20’s. I think it was in response to modernism? (similair to chialism’s response to the gnostics in the first century)

Is this the main reason or are there other factors? It had to be a response to something going on in America at the time, or it probably would have spread so quickly.

Does anyone know of a good article talking about the dynamics of this? I can’t find one.

Thank you. 🙂
I don’t know of many good articles that discuss it, but several things are responsible for the rise of premillennial dispensationalism. I think you’re close on when it started to take off. Postmillennialism was the most popular eschatology among most mainstream Reformed and Protestant groups up until World War I. Once things started to go to hell in a handbasket, postmillenialism died on a vine and dispensationalism took over. It is, ultimately, a pessimistic viewpoint of the world going wacky up until the “rapture” when all hell breaks loose. It’s a perfect fit for the modern world, I suppose.
 
Thank you for responding.

Any other root causes of dispensationalism. (The social dynamics surrounding its rise)

Something to do with the Biblical critical methods that were suggesting there was nothing supernatural or divine about Jesus and the bible (maybe)?

If anyone knows of articles, I’d appreciate it.
 
Pre-millennial dispensationalism took off in America in the 1910’s and 20’s. I think it was in response to modernism? (similair to chialism’s response to the gnostics in the first century)

Is this the main reason or are there other factors? It had to be a response to something going on in America at the time, or it probably would have spread so quickly.

Does anyone know of a good article talking about the dynamics of this? I can’t find one.

Thank you. 🙂
I think it was a response to the very real Zionist push for Jews to go back to the Holyland. Just a thought.
 
I think it was a response to the very real Zionist push for Jews to go back to the Holyland. Just a thought.
I’m not very familiar with Zionism so I can’t say. My guess is Zionism grew out of the dispensationalism.
 
google.com/search?hl=en&q=development+dispensationalism

The rise of dispensationalism goes back to the 1800’s. One factor was the Millerite Movement preaching the second coming. Basically, there was strong interrest concerning when the Lord would return.

graceonlinelibrary.org/articles/full.asp?id=9%7C21%7C655

feasite.org/Foundation/fbchistdevel.htm
Thank you for the links. It seems like liberalism was the main reason.

The premillenial pre-trib “rapture” grew out of that movement. It makes theological sense in a dispensational framework.

That has got me wondering what other christian groups (who are not dispensationalist) believe in premill pre-trib rapture?

Thanks
 
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