No one has shown its referring to two seperate things. Have they? Where are the extra biblical traditions shown to come from Paul?
This question is fair enough. I think we can show some. Actually, Protestants and Fundamentalists hold to extra-biblical traditions even if they do not credit them as such.
An obvious example is Sunday worship. I don’t know of anyplace in the bible that tells Christians to worship on Sunday. But we all do. The Puritans even made it mandatory for people to go to church on Sunday, and going so far as to call it the Sabbath, even though the bible does not.
Now, there are vague allusions in Acts to Christian gatherings on the “first day of the week,” such taking collections on the first day of the week. And it was the first day of the week when Paul was preaching. Why do we think these are allusions to worship? Because we already have the oral tradition of worship on Sunday. Otherwise we wouldn’t recognize them as such at all. Seventh Day Adventists don’t.
In Revelation John was “in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day.” We believe that to be Sunday, because it is an oral tradition that Sunday is also called the Lord’s Day.
Acts 2:42 says that “They were continually devoting themselves to the apostles’ teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and prayer.” Oral tradition says this refers to the Eurcharist (breaking of bread), but otherwise it could thought of as “taking a meal.” As the Jehovah’s Witnesses’ NWT puts it! Which is why they celebrate the Last Supper only once a year. But if you already know that breaking of bread refers to the Eurcharist, you also know that the early Chrtistians continually celebrated it.
So, it is difficult to see how the assumption that the written tradition is coterminus with the oral tradition is safe to make. I guess it is an assumption a person makes one way or another. As for proof, I don’t know how it can be proved, nor do I know how it can be disproved. What can be done is present evidence and reason for one position or another.
So whether or not scripture is materially sufficient (containing all that is needed for salvation) I do not think it is formally sufficient (in a form easily understood), or “perspicuous.”
I think Peter is explicity denying the perspicuity of scripture at 2Peter 3:16: Our beloved brother Paul…wrote to you as also in all his letters…in which there are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of Scriptures, to their own destruction.
Examples already given are the Seventh Day Adventists and Jehovah’s Witnesses.
A person may think they understand the Scriptures, but do they?