The Reformation...reforming to What?

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NO! šŸ™‚ No, what I’m am trying to do is understand how a protestant can justify a belief that what the ā€œReformersā€ did was correct. If protestants believe that the ā€œReformersā€ were right to do what they did…then I want to see why they believe this.

Like I said, Either the Reformers ā€œreformedā€ back to what Christianity had been from the beginning…in which case we should see some early Christian writings that support their doctrines…or they changed what Christianity had always been…in which case we should be able to see some proof of their authority to do this.

The fact is, we DON’T see any early writings supporting ANY of the ā€œreformedā€ beliefs. .
That’s too strong. It depends how you are defining reformed beliefs.

If you compare a developed, post-Vatican-II, ressourcement-influenced understanding of Catholic doctrine with the dogmatic form of Protestant doctrine found in the classic Confessions, and a fortiori with the views of fundamentalists and other radical Protestants, then your statement is justified.

But if you compare the often poorly articulated and defended teachings of 16th-century Catholicism with some of the basic critiques of the Reformers, it’s not so clear.

In particular, the standard early Protestant approach was to challenge Catholics to show that the precise, developed form of doctrine defended in 16th-century Catholicism was taught by the Fathers. Catholics were generally unable to do this.

John Jewel’s Apology for the Church of England and Martin Chemnitz’ Examination of the Council of Trent both make very learned patristic cases for Protestantism.

Protestants, early on, were on stronger ground precisely because they didn’t claim that the Church was infallible. So when the obvious conclusion was reached that patristic Christianity didn’t fit easily with *either *side, the Protestants could account for their divergences with the Fathers by saying, ā€œafter all, the Fathers are just fallible humans and only Scripture is the Word of God,ā€ while Catholics were stuck trying to prove that all the teachings and practices of 16th-century Catholicism were found in the Fathers.

Once Catholics started taking patristic scholarship really seriously, they acquired the resources to develop a more nuanced account of how doctrine develops, culminating in the work of Newman. Then the weight of the patristic argument shifted to the Catholic side. But without a strong doctrine of development, Protestants have a better case because their burden of proof is so much lower.

It’s pretty easy to show that the Reformers *did *rediscover some patristic teachings and emphases, and that many nuances and practices found in later Catholicism are absent from the Fathers, or at least not universally taught by them.

The Fathers frequently use language about the authority of Scripture that made Catholics pretty nervous until recently.

Some of the Fathers, like Augustine, have a doctrine of the Real Presence that seems more spiritualized than later Catholic dogma allows for.

The Fathers clearly thought that all baptized Christians should study Scripture (something Catholics generally denied from the later Middle Ages until the 19th century).

The Fathers’ Eucharistic piety was focused on reception of the Eucharist (and adoration *within the context of the liturgy); *they never mention extra-liturgical Eucharistic adoration.

Augustine regards post-mortem purgation as theological opinion, not dogma.

And so on, and so forth.

None of these points seem to tell very heavily against Catholicism *now. *But I can see why they did in the 16th century.

Edwin
 
Course listening to Erasmus was influencial with Luther also. This was on-going by the time Luther became involved.
 
I’m not quite sure what you mean. Are you saying that the Reformers themselves researched and relied upon Church history and the ECFs (when formulating their teachings on Christianity) or that, generally speaking, it is the practice of today’s Protestants to do this?
Well, there’s no doubt that the Reformers did this–I don’t know if that’s what DLM is talking about.

Until the later 16th century Protestants were generally ahead of Catholics in patristic scholarship. Of course, that was a fairly brief time and Catholics have been ahead ever since. But it was a decisive few decades.

EDwin
 
Course listening to Erasmus was influencial with Luther also. This was on-going by the time Luther became involved.
Right. Somewhat with Luther and much more so with many of the other Reformers.

Perhaps the majority of younger scholars influenced by Erasmus became Protestants, They decided that Erasmus was too timid and wasn’t following through on his own principles. (I think they were completely wrong about that, but I can see why they thought it at the time.)

Edwin
 
Right. Somewhat with Luther and much more so with many of the other Reformers.

Perhaps the majority of younger scholars influenced by Erasmus became Protestants, They decided that Erasmus was too timid and wasn’t following through on his own principles. (I think they were completely wrong about that, but I can see why they thought it at the time.)

Edwin
Exactly, this and other personal issues came into question. He was brilliant though.
 
In particular, the standard early Protestant approach was to challenge Catholics to show that the precise, developed form of doctrine defended in 16th-century Catholicism was taught by the Fathers. Catholics were generally unable to do this.
Why would Protestants feel that Catholics needed to prove each Doctrine was taught by the Fathers? Catholics do not believe in sola partrista. Nor do we believe that the enite Deposit of Faith has been fully expounded upon by the ECF’s since the beginning. One can’t preach the beauty of the canopy of shade that the might oak casts while the oak is still a sapling, can he?
Protestants, early on, were on stronger ground precisely because they didn’t claim that the Church was infallible.
I’d say the opposite is true, because they then relied on their own interpretation of Scripture…hence the never-ending splits in Protestantism to this day. And yes, I realize some have split from the Church as well…those also having their own ideas about how Scripture is to be interpreted. But this is not what I want to discuss in this thread. I want to know whether the Reformers were trying to get back to the ā€œoriginalā€ Deposit of Faith, or if they decided it was time for a change. Then comes the issue of, why pick-n-choose…or by what authority was Doctrine changed?
So when the obvious conclusion was reached that patristic Christianity didn’t fit easily…the Protestants could account for their divergences with the Fathers by saying, ā€œafter all, the Fathers are just fallible humans and only Scripture is the Word of God,ā€ā€¦
Didn’t fit easily according to whose opinion? Why assume that just because the ECF’s teachings ā€œdidn’t fit easilyā€ that it meant they were not true teachings? Did the Reformers demonstrate an authority to make this judgment call?
It’s pretty easy to show that the Reformers *did *rediscover some patristic teachings and emphases, and that many nuances and practices found in later Catholicism are absent from the Fathers, or at least not universally taught by them.
The point? What does this have to do with the Reformers changing Doctrine? Either they can demonstrate authority to have done this, or they can demonstrate where they were getting back to the ā€œoriginalā€ā€¦in which case, why pick-n-choose instead of accept it all (like Papal Authority and Infallibility)?
The Fathers frequently use language about the authority of Scripture that made Catholics pretty nervous until recently.
Some of the Fathers, like Augustine, have a doctrine of the Real Presence that seems more spiritualized than later Catholic dogma allows for.
Made Catholics nervous? More spiritual than Dogma can allow for? It’s of topic here, so I encourage you to start a new thread on these claims…but for now, ā€œā€¦facile asseritur, facile reprobaveruntā€¦ā€.
The Fathers clearly thought …Augustine regards …And so on, and so forth.
None of these points seem to tell very heavily against Catholicism *now. *But I can see why they did in the 16th century.
So then are you saying that the Reformers were going back to the EFC’s to establish Doctrine? Or were they not?
 
Well, there’s no doubt that the Reformers did this–I don’t know if that’s what DLM is talking about.

Until the later 16th century Protestants were generally ahead of Catholics in patristic scholarship. Of course, that was a fairly brief time and Catholics have been ahead ever since. But it was a decisive few decades.

EDwin
And why is that? Why did Protestants suddenly back away from patristic scholoarship? Was it because 1) the Reformers were truly wanting to get back to the ā€œoriginalā€, yet found following the ECF’s would demand that they accept Papal Authority, Infallibility. Transubstantiation, Sacramental Marriage/Penance/Baptism/etc… OR 2) they truly wanted to change Doctrine…and then where did they get the auhtority to do this?
…OR 3) because relying on the ECF’s undermined sola scriptura?
 
Why would Protestants feel that Catholics needed to prove each Doctrine was taught by the Fathers?
Because sixteenth-century Catholics claimed that their faith was based on the ā€œunanimous consent of the Fathersā€ (language used even by the Council of Trent). Conservative Catholics of that era had a fairly poor understanding of patristic scholarship and tended just to assume that the Fathers all believed the same things and all believed whatever the Catholic Church of their era taught, with little room for development.

Erasmus was considered a disturbing, subversive figure because he pointed out the nuances and tensions and diversity within the patristic witness. Protestants built on Erasmus’ work.
Nor do we believe that the enite Deposit of Faith has been fully expounded upon by the ECF’s since the beginning. One can’t preach the beauty of the canopy of shade that the might oak casts while the oak is still a sapling, can he?
Indeed. Hence my point that Newman decisively tipped the scales in favor of Catholicism.

But sixteenth-century Catholics did not speak that way, when it came to doctrine. You’re reading anachronistically a later, more developed understanding of development:p into the sixteenth century.
I want to know whether the Reformers were trying to get back to the ā€œoriginalā€ Deposit of Faith
Certainly the former, with the caveat that the Reformers identified that original deposit primarily with the content of Scripture (hence ā€œsola Scriptura,ā€ though the early Reformers didn’t use that rather misleading term). They saw the Fathers as mostly reliable, and always valuable interpreters of that deposit.

The basic Protestant position was that the Fathers weren’t perfect but agreed with them (the Reformers) more than with ā€œthe Papists.ā€ I tried to show in my post above how and why they could believe this, when to me and many people today the opposite appears to be the case (in other words, while I don’t think the Fathers line up exactly with later Catholic doctrine, I would agree that they line up far more with it than with sharply defined Protestant doctrine).

I think you’re asking the question in an anachronistic way, assuming that later centuries of patristic scholarship and thought about the development of doctrine were available in the sixteenth century.
Didn’t fit easily according to whose opinion?
The Reformers’.
Why assume that just because the ECF’s teachings ā€œdidn’t fit easilyā€ that it meant they were not true teachings?
You lost me. What’s the antecedent of ā€œtheyā€? Are you asking why the Reformers didn’t just throw out the Fathers, or why they didn’t just abandon their opinions when those conflicted with patristic teaching?

They didn’t do the latter because they identified their own opinions with the teaching of Scripture.They didn’t do the former for various reasons, ranging from the fact that they needed the Fathers to establish their credibility and answer the ā€œwhere was your Church before Lutherā€ argument to the fact that they genuinely thought the Fathers had a basically sound understanding of the Faith.
Did the Reformers demonstrate an authority to make this judgment call?
Do you demonstrate an authority to determine whether they demonstrated an authority?

You’re skating over a lot of big epistemological questions with this language of ā€œdemonstrating authority.ā€ Demonstrate how? By what standard? I don’t think this approach holds up.
The point? What does this have to do with the Reformers changing Doctrine? Either they can demonstrate authority to have done this, or they can demonstrate where they were getting back to the ā€œoriginalā€ā€¦in which case, why pick-n-choose instead of accept it all (like Papal Authority and Infallibility)?
Whether the Fathers really support your Communion’s understanding of Papal authority (which in the sixteenth century didn’t necessarily include infallibility anyway) is still a matter of serious dispute. Most patristic scholars I know think they don’t, but I think that if you have a proper doctrine of development you can make a very good case that they do.
Made Catholics nervous? More spiritual than Dogma can allow for? It’s of topic here, so I encourage you to start a new thread on these claims…but for now, ā€œā€¦facile asseritur, facile reprobaveruntā€¦ā€.
Indeed. And that’s true of your assertions as well. . . .

The issue of Augustine’s view of the Eucharist has been done to death on this forum.
So then are you saying that the Reformers were going back to the EFC’s to establish Doctrine? Or were they not?
I’m saying that it’s not that simple.

They claimed to be going back to Scripture, but they also claimed that the Fathers supported their positions more than those of their opponents. I am not saying that they were correct. I’m saying that they sincerely believed this and that they convinced a lot of people in the sixteenth century, partly because the Catholic position as it was then articulated didn’t yet have an adequate doctrine of development and had trouble defending against the Protestants’ radicalization of the humanist ā€œad fontesā€ principle.

I think the best analogy for the Protestant understanding of what they were doing is a tombstone or other stone inscription covered with moss. The Protestants thought that in the days of the Fathers there was just a very light dusting of moss, and so the inscription was more clearly visible. Hence they could appeal to the Fathers to defend their reading of the ā€œoriginal inscription.ā€ But their goal was to get rid of all the moss.

I think this is a radically flawed approach for all kinds of reasons and they clearly managed to misread the ā€œinscriptionā€ in a lot of ways. But you asked for the rationale of what they were doing.

Edwin
 
And why is that? Why did Protestants suddenly back away from patristic scholoarship?
I don’t know that they ā€œbacked awayā€ so much as that Catholics caught up. Seventeenth-century Protestants studied the Fathers pretty intensely, I believe (I know less about this period than about the period of the Reformation). But as the ā€œEnlightenmentā€ approach caught on, sola scriptura became radicalized as part of a general contempt for the past. That I would say is when the ā€œbacking awayā€ happened (late 17th and 18th centuries).
Was it because 1) the Reformers were truly wanting to get back to the ā€œoriginalā€, yet found following the ECF’s would demand that they accept Papal Authority, Infallibility. Transubstantiation, Sacramental Marriage/Penance/Baptism/etc…
Well, since many Catholics of this era didn’t accept papal infallibility. . . . .

The Protestants had no problem with sacramental baptism.

You’re overstating the patristic case a bit.
OR 2) they truly wanted to change Doctrine…and then where did they get the auhtority to do this?
…OR 3) because relying on the ECF’s undermined sola scriptura?
I think that to some extent indeed greater patristic scholarship forced the Protestants to back away from earlier claims about patristic support for their positions, creating a bifurcation between those who adopted a radical version of sola scriptura in which the Fathers really weren’t necessary and those (Anglicans and some Lutherans) who promoted a reunion of the churches on the basis of the teachings of the first five centuries (Georg Calixtus, for instance).

Edwin
 
But sixteenth-century Catholics did not speak that way, when it came to doctrine. You’re reading anachronistically a later, more developed understanding of development:p into the sixteenth century.
I see your point. So, looking at it in hindsight, now in the present, how does a Reformed Christian or a Protestant justify following the Reformers when the Reformers either: 1) worked to get back to the original Christianity…yet left out many of the original Doctrines OR 2) changed Doctrine?
Certainly the former, with the caveat that the Reformers identified that original deposit primarily with the content of Scripture (hence ā€œsola Scriptura,ā€ though the early Reformers didn’t use that rather misleading term). They saw the Fathers as mostly reliable, and always valuable interpreters of that deposit.
So, how does one explain that the Fathers were a reliable interpreter of ā€œthat original deposit primarily with the content of Scriptureā€ when there was no established Canon until the 4th century, and in the times of some of the ECF’s writings, the Gospels had yet to be completely recorded? And why did the Reformers rely on teh ECF’s for SOME of their interpretations, while rejecting others (like the Papacy and the Sacraments)?
The basic Protestant position was that the Fathers weren’t perfect but agreed with them (the Reformers) more than with ā€œthe Papists.ā€ I tried to show in my post above how and why they could believe this, when to me and many people today the opposite appears to be the case (in other words, while I don’t think the Fathers line up exactly with later Catholic doctrine, I would agree that they line up far more with it than with sharply defined Protestant doctrine).
Right, that might explain how the Reformers thought they were really getting back to the original Doctrines. But today, we in the present see that they were actually wrong on some major points…according to the ECF’s…such as on the Papacy. So, in the modern mind of today’s Protestants, if the Reformers truly wanted to get back to the original witht the teachings of the ECF’s in mind, then do you now have an obligation to truly study the ECF’s and accept that teaching?
I think you’re asking the question in an anachronistic way, assuming that later centuries of patristic scholarship and thought about the development of doctrine were available in the sixteenth century.
I see your point here. But I’m not trying to decide if the Reformers were right or wrong, per se, I’m trying to find out what they were trying to do and figure out why Protestants still follow their theology even though the Reformers either 1) did NOT get back to the orginal or 2) changed Doctrine.
You lost me. What’s the antecedent of ā€œtheyā€? Are you asking why the Reformers didn’t just throw out the Fathers, or why they didn’t just abandon their opinions when those conflicted with patristic teaching?
*So when the obvious conclusion was reached that patristic Christianity didn’t fit easily…the Protestants could account for their divergences with the Fathers by saying, ā€œafter all, the Fathers are just fallible humans and only Scripture is the Word of God,ā€ā€¦

Didn’t fit easily according to whose opinion? Why assume that just because the ECF’s teachings ā€œdidn’t fit easilyā€ that it meant they were not true teachings? Did the Reformers demonstrate an authority to make this judgment call?*

ā€œtheyā€ = the teachings of the ECF’s. Just because a teaching does not fit easily does not make it untrue. Protestants could account for divergences by, essentially dismissing the teaching, stating that the Fathers were just fallible. But being fallible and not-easily-fit doesn’t make a teaching untrue. If the Reformers could dismiss what they wanted under the basis of the Fathers being fallible, what made them so sure THEY (the Reformers) were not wrong? And then looking from today’s perspective, what makes a Protestant belive the Reformers were correct, if they (the Reformers) were so quick to point out the fallibility of ā€œmanā€, and the Reformers themselves are only ā€œmanā€?
They didn’t do the latter because they identified their own opinions with the teaching of Scripture.They didn’t do the former for various reasons, ranging from the fact that they needed the Fathers to establish their credibility and answer the ā€œwhere was your Church before Lutherā€ argument to the fact that they genuinely thought the Fathers had a basically sound understanding of the Faith.
But if they really thought, or if modern Protestants really thinnk, the Fathers had a sound understanding of the Faith, then why reject much of what the Fathers taught?
Do you demonstrate an authority to determine whether they demonstrated an authority?You’re skating over a lot of big epistemological questions with this language of ā€œdemonstrating authority.ā€ Demonstrate how? By what standard? I don’t think this approach holds up.
I’m not sure what all that means. But I’m asking by what authority the Reformers rejected long-established Christian Doctrine…Doctrine taught by the same ECF’s that supposedly they relied upon in establishing Reformed Doctrine.
Whether the Fathers really support your Communion’s understanding of Papal authority (which in the sixteenth century didn’t necessarily include infallibility anyway) is still a matter of serious dispute. Most patristic scholars I know think they don’t, but I think that if you have a proper doctrine of development you can make a very good case that they do.
Okay, so does this mean that Reformed Doctrine does not rely soley on Scripture then, if an appeal is being made to the ECF’s?
I’m saying that it’s not that simple.
They claimed to be going back to Scripture, but they also claimed that the Fathers supported their positions more than those of their opponents. I am not saying that they were correct. I’m saying that they sincerely believed this and that they convinced a lot of people in the sixteenth century, partly because the Catholic position as it was then articulated didn’t yet have an adequate doctrine of development and had trouble defending against the Protestants’ radicalization of the humanist ā€œad fontesā€ principle.
I think the best analogy for the Protestant understanding of what they were doing is a tombstone or other stone inscription covered with moss. The Protestants thought that in the days of the Fathers there was just a very light dusting of moss, and so the inscription was more clearly visible. Hence they could appeal to the Fathers to defend their reading of the ā€œoriginal inscription.ā€ But their goal was to get rid of all the moss.
I think this is a radically flawed approach for all kinds of reasons and they clearly managed to misread the ā€œinscriptionā€ in a lot of ways. But you asked for the rationale of what they were doing.
Yes, I see what you are saying. Okay, so in light of this now, how does/should a Protestant reconcile the fact that what the Reformers thought they were doing might not have been actually acheived? Are the teachings of the ECF’s held in high-esteem as something to be looked into to find clues to the Truth, or is this ignored and *sola scriptura *reigns supreme?
 
I’m not sure what you are implying here, but Luther’s religious education was extensive, culminating in a doctorate of theology.
Luther was a man - with flaws, some of them glaring, and more glaring because his writings are voluminous . And that makes him - a man in need of a savior, just like you and me.

Jon
Hi Jon, how long was Luther’s formal religious education? I understand him to have been in the abby for less than 2 years. Did attaining a doctorate in the early 1500’s have the same rigor as today? I won’t tear into Luther but it wasn’t just his voluminous writings, it is what he wrote and believed. Years of study and intelligence don’t translate to wisdom. As a Catholic I would have to say this about Luther and truly believe it.

Lutheranism aside, Protestantism covers a lot of churches and the lack of ECF knowledge is prevelant in the laity. Same is true in Catholic pews but the issue is that the Catholic church teachings are consistent with the ECF’s and that can not be said of Protestant teachings. Furthest from the truth are protestant churches that deny Christ’s real presence in the Eucharist, especially in bible only believing churches. The Real Presence is clearly in scripture and clearly seen in the ECFs yet denial. Symbolic only. It’s very sad for them as they miss the added grace. I also tend to go off a bit, hopefully with love, on my brothers in Christ who say as a Catholic that I am not saved. :mad: Those who say that are disconnected from even the reformation and tend to be the ones that mis-interpret and/or twist scripture the most AND don’t typically don’t pay any attention at all to the ECFs. It’s also interesting reading and hearing some of the conversion stories by protestant pastors that the ECF’s were really not discussed when they went through seminary. And, upon reading the ECF’s, they were led to the Catholic church. Sources include Patrick Madrid’s books and the Journey Home on EWTN.

All that said, I don’t blame my Christian brothers as I understand this to be the work of the evil one. It makes since that he would attack Christ’s church, cause division and lead man astray. That’s what I would do if I were him.
 
Reformers relied upon the teaching the same way many RC’s rely upon their teaching now. I don’t understand where I am missing you here. By rely I mean learned from.

For example: Many ECF’s spoke of Sola Fide, below is a quote from Clement of Rome from another great Christian form at CARM.org

Clement of Rome (c. 30-100): ā€œAnd we [Christians], too, being called by His will in Christ Jesus, are not justified by ourselves, nor by our own wisdom, or understanding, or godliness, or works which we have wrought in holiness of heart; but by that faith through which, from the beginning, Almighty God has justified all men; to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.ā€[Clement Alexandria. Epistle to the Corinthians.]

Check out this site for more information: carm.org/intro-ecf
Clement doesn’t teach FAITH ALONE. He goes on saying. ā€œWhat shall we do, then, brethren? Shall we become slothful in well-doing, and cease from the practice of love? God forbid that any such course should be followed by us!ā€] Yes all men are justified by faith, working in love, but not by faith alone which James called dead faith.
 
I see your point. So, looking at it in hindsight, now in the present, how does a Reformed Christian or a Protestant justify following the Reformers when the Reformers either: 1) worked to get back to the original Christianity…yet left out many of the original Doctrines OR 2) changed Doctrine?
Well, I myself could not justify becoming a confessional Protestant (Lutheran/Reformed, or for that matter low-church Anglican) or remaining a radical free-church Protestant, precisely for these reasons.

I could suggest some ways in which people do so, but I should probably let them speak for themselves.

I remain a sort-of Protestant because I believe that for all its flaws, Protestantism remains a true expression of Christianity. Hence I belong to the most ā€œCatholicā€ form of Protestantism I can find (Anglicanism) and use that platform to speak to other Protestants about the need to rethink the Reformation and recover the many aspects pf the Tradition that they have abandoned.

I’m not going to get into a debate about whether this is a legitimate approach, mostly because I’m far from easy in my own conscience about it.
So, how does one explain that the Fathers were a reliable interpreter of ā€œthat original deposit primarily with the content of Scriptureā€ when there was no established Canon until the 4th century, and in the times of some of the ECF’s writings, the Gospels had yet to be completely recorded?
Well, that last is only even possibly true for a couple of very early texts, at least one of which (the Didache) wasn’t even available in the Reformation era. So it’s not a serious consideration. By and large, the NT documents are the earliest Christian texts we have.

You start to see an NT canon in II Peter, which of course the Reformers believed to be by St. Peter and very early. You have a four-Gospel canon in Irenaeus and clear acceptance of the Gospels earlier than that. Second-century Christians certainly did have a canon, at least by the end of the century–the fact that there was still debate about a few books is not very important as far as I can see.

However, I think there is something to this argument, in the sense that the affirmations of the material sufficiency and supremacy of Scripture on which Protestants have always put a lot of weight mostly occur from the fourth century on. In the second century the case is a bit different, which is that the content of the ā€œtraditionā€ of which Irenaeus and others speak so much is clearly the content of Scripture. I think Protestants overstate this, but by and large the statements of the ā€œRule of Faithā€ from this era do correspond to things actually described in Scripture.

Formally, though, I think many modern scholars are increasingly of the mind that second-century Christians really did see the Rule of Faith, handed down by tradition, as primary and were not as concerned with canon as Protestants would be, or as Protestants have tended to assume the early Christians were.

But this is taking a while to ā€œtrickle down.ā€ Many educated Protestants are still relying heavily on the kind of interpretation of Irenaeus that you find in Heiko Oberman’s ā€œQuo Vadis, Petre,ā€ which has been popularized in Keith Mathison’s The Shape of Sola Scriptura.
And why did the Reformers rely on teh ECF’s for SOME of their interpretations, while rejecting others (like the Papacy and the Sacraments)?
That’s untrue. Protestants, like the Orthodox, point to patristic interpretations of Matt. 16 as referring to Peter’s faith, or to the apostles in general.

And the Reformed rested very heavily on Augustine in their formulation of a doctrine of Christ’s spiritual presence in the Eucharist and their rejection of the ā€œmanducatio infideliumā€ (i.e., their insistence that only believers eat and drink the Body and Blood of Christ). Indeed, if Gary Macy is right the manducatio infidelium only became common Catholic teaching in the later 13th century.
But today, we in the present see that they were actually wrong on some major points…according to the ECF’s…such as on the Papacy.
That’s one of the less clear points, I think. (Not that there’s no case, but it’s not an open-and-shut case, whatever you and others influenced by Catholic apologetics may wish to believe.) It’s much easier to make a case on other points, principally sola fide but also the general approach to such issues as tradition, apostolic succession, and the communion of the saints.
ā€œtheyā€ = the teachings of the ECF’s. Just because a teaching does not fit easily does not make it untrue. Protestants could account for divergences by, essentially dismissing the teaching, stating that the Fathers were just fallible.
They did do this when necessary. Lutherans actually were much more willing to do it (early on, in the time of Luther and Melanchthon themselves) than the Reformed. But naturally they didn’t want to do it if they didn’t have to.
If the Reformers could dismiss what they wanted under the basis of the Fathers being fallible, what made them so sure THEY (the Reformers) were not wrong?
Some Reformers were OK with the idea that they were as fallible as the Fathers. Luther himself seems to have been convinced that he had a direct line to God in some way and that the Fathers, for all their virtues, were relatively confused about the Gospel. Calvin theoretically acknowledged that he could be wrong, but also, in practice, acted as if he were infallible. I think that it’s significant that these are the two guys Protestants are most likely to follow from the Reformation era. In my opinion most Protestants don’t face the implications of this seriously enough. I heard an astounding paper last fall at the Sixteenth Century Studies conference (I don’t know the presenter’s church affiliation but he certainly wasn’t Catholic–I think he is either Anglican or Presbyterian, but I’m not sure). The presenter argued that Calvin effectively put his own teachings ā€œabove Scripture,ā€ and then was surprised that this generated some shock and pushback from the largely Reformed (though not the ultra-conservative Reformed folks on this forum are used to tangling with) audience. The commentator on the paper was a very gracious and learned Swiss Reformed scholar from Geneva (actually he may be French originally, but he lives and works in Geneva now), and he challenged the presenter, resulting in an interesting debate. Probably saying that Calvin put his own opinions above Scripture is too strong, but the presenter’s point (which I thought he established well) was that Calvin in practice spoke as if his teachings simply were the Word of God and should be accepted in their entirety.

At the same time, Calvin, like the other Reformed, made much of the fact that Luther was ā€œjust a manā€ and thus fallible. . . . .

So yes, I think Protestantism has a serious problem here.
And then looking from today’s perspective, what makes a Protestant belive the Reformers were correct, if they (the Reformers) were so quick to point out the fallibility of ā€œmanā€, and the Reformers themselves are only ā€œmanā€?
It depends on which Protestants you ask. There are various answers, none of which I find convincing. I can try to list them for you if you wish, but I’d rather let someone who actually believes in Protestantism do the job. . . .
But if they really thought, or if modern Protestants really thinnk, the Fathers had a sound understanding of the Faith, then why reject much of what the Fathers taught?
It’s common in educated Protestant circles now to make much of the continuity between the Reformers and the previous tradition (medieval as well as patristic). My former advisor, David Steinmetz, is often identified with this effort, although I think that’s a mistake–his writings actually show quite clearly how radically the Reformers were willing to break with the past at times. But essentially the line I hear most often from learned evangelicals is that the Reformation really wasn’t that radical and is just one form (along with ā€œRomanā€ Catholicism and Orthodoxy) of the ancient Catholic heritage.

Timothy George, a Baptist scholar, makes this kind of argument. I’ve heard him (in a friendly ā€œdebateā€ with Francis Beckwith) claim that Augustine teaches sola fide in his comments on Psalm 51, for instance. He’s written articles in First Things on the importance of the Creeds.

I just don’t think this kind of Protestantism holds up. But a lot of very learned and devout people disagree with me.
I’m not sure what all that means. But I’m asking by what authority the Reformers rejected long-established Christian Doctrine…Doctrine taught by the same ECF’s that supposedly they relied upon in establishing Reformed Doctrine.
By the authority of Scripture. And yes, I think they were way too optimistic about the reliability of their methods of interpretation.
Okay, so does this mean that Reformed Doctrine does not rely soley on Scripture then, if an appeal is being made to the ECF’s?
Of course it doesn’t. That’s almost like saying ā€œso Catholics don’t really worship Mary?ā€

Reformed doctrine views only Scripture as infallible. But of course you look to theological tradition to help you interpret Scripture.

The problem with contemporary Protestant approaches, as I see them, is that they read the Fathers through the lens of the Reformers instead of the other way round.

Tom Oden’s Justification Reader is a fascinating example of this.

Edwin
 
Clement doesn’t teach FAITH ALONE. He goes on saying. ā€œWhat shall we do, then, brethren? Shall we become slothful in well-doing, and cease from the practice of love? God forbid that any such course should be followed by us!ā€] Yes all men are justified by faith, working in love, but not by faith alone which James called dead faith.
Straw man.

The Protestant position is not that we are justified by dead faith, but that the true faith that comes from God is never dead. In the Protestant view, it doesn’t need to be made ā€œaliveā€ by charity, but rather itself always gives rise to charity and hence to good works.

Edwin
 
Hi Jon, how long was Luther’s formal religious education? I understand him to have been in the abby for less than 2 years.
I think where you’re getting this is that he was ordained about 2 years after he entered the Augustinian convent (not technically an abbey). See this chronology. As you can see, he received his initial degree in Bible four years after becoming a friar, moved to Wittenberg two years later to start teaching, and got his doctorate the next year (thus after seven years of religious training/education).
Did attaining a doctorate in the early 1500’s have the same rigor as today?
Hard question because it’s hard to compare different eras, especially given that in both eras standards differ widely from one place to another, but broadly speaking yes.

Calvin, in contrast, had basically no formal education in theology. . . .

Edwin
 
Straw man.

The Protestant position is not that we are justified by dead faith, but that the true faith that comes from God is never dead. In the Protestant view, it doesn’t need to be made ā€œaliveā€ by charity, but rather itself always gives rise to charity and hence to good works.

Edwin
Pretty much what James states, in that Faith without works cannot be shown. So one becomes an indication of the other being alive, or the works indicating the faith.

Arguement seems to revolve around semantics in history.
 
=Porknpie;9465391]Hi Jon, how long was Luther’s formal religious education? I understand him to have been in the abby for less than 2 years. Did attaining a doctorate in the early 1500’s have the same rigor as today? I won’t tear into Luther but it wasn’t just his voluminous writings, it is what he wrote and believed. Years of study and intelligence don’t translate to wisdom. As a Catholic I would have to say this about Luther and truly believe it.
There’s a lot of folks, Catholic and not, that agree with you. I, for one, that to see both sides of Luther and others. I’m willing to see his obvious flaws, and yet recognize his good writings, as well.
Lutheranism aside, Protestantism covers a lot of churches and the lack of ECF knowledge is prevelant in the laity. Same is true in Catholic pews but the issue is that the Catholic church teachings are consistent with the ECF’s and that can not be said of Protestant teachings
We both suffer from poor catechesis.
Furthest from the truth are protestant churches that deny Christ’s real presence in the Eucharist, especially in bible only believing churches. The Real Presence is clearly in scripture and clearly seen in the ECFs yet denial. Symbolic only. It’s very sad for them as they miss the added grace.
Melanchthon references both, plus both east and west regarding the real presence in the Apology of the Augsburg Confession. Yes, it is sad.
I also tend to go off a bit, hopefully with love, on my brothers in Christ who say as a Catholic that I am not saved. :mad:
I don’t blame you.
Those who say that are disconnected from even the reformation and tend to be the ones that mis-interpret and/or twist scripture the most AND don’t typically don’t pay any attention at all to the ECFs. It’s also interesting reading and hearing some of the conversion stories by protestant pastors that the ECF’s were really not discussed when they went through seminary. And, upon reading the ECF’s, they were led to the Catholic church. Sources include Patrick Madrid’s books and the Journey Home on EWTN.
It is interesting that it seems like, and I don’t have stats for this, Lutheran pastors who convert tend to go toward Orthodoxy. I receive the JH newsletter regularly, and actually read it. 😃
All that said, I don’t blame my Christian brothers as I understand this to be the work of the evil one. It makes since that he would attack Christ’s church, cause division and lead man astray. That’s what I would do if I were him
All the more reason to work at dialogue, and look to the Spirit for guidance.

Jon
 
There’s a lot of folks, Catholic and not, that agree with you. I, for one, that to see both sides of Luther and others. I’m willing to see his obvious flaws, and yet recognize his good writings, as well.

We both suffer from poor catechesis.

I’d add that Catholic adult catechesis is encumbent on the individual to take advantage and attend. The 20/80 rule applies, 20% are the same 80% that show up. I still don’t understand why. :confused:

It is interesting that it seems like, and I don’t have stats for this, Lutheran pastors who convert tend to go toward Orthodoxy. I receive the JH newsletter regularly, and actually read it. 😃

Good for you. The best conversion story that I know of is from a local priest. At the age of 9, while sitting in the backseat of his parents car, going down the road, he told his parents that he would be a Catholic priest someday. His parents responded that they were Lutheran not Catholic. He responded by saying that he would figure out a way to make it happen. He eventually did and is now a Monsignor. I’ll let the story speak for itself. God gets some of them before they even become Pastors. šŸ˜‰

All the more reason to work at dialogue, and look to the Spirit for guidance.

Jon
 
Well, I myself could not justify becoming a confessional Protestant (Lutheran/Reformed, or for that matter low-church Anglican) or remaining a radical free-church Protestant, precisely for these reasons.

I could suggest some ways in which people do so, but I should probably let them speak for themselves.

I remain a sort-of Protestant because I believe that for all its flaws, Protestantism remains a true expression of Christianity. Hence I belong to the most ā€œCatholicā€ form of Protestantism I can find (Anglicanism) and use that platform to speak to other Protestants about the need to rethink the Reformation and recover the many aspects pf the Tradition that they have abandoned.
I’m not going to get into a debate about whether this is a legitimate approach, mostly because I’m far from easy in my own conscience about it…Edwin
I cropped to save space, but WOW, thanks for that very informative response. That really sheds a lot of light on things for me…including the fact that in trying to ā€œsimplifyā€ things by lumping Protestants/Reformers into one group…I’m making it more comlpicated.

In regards to the bolded…I think it’s wonderful that you encourage others to rethink things in that manner. I completely agree that it’s beneficial to study the ECF’s in an effort to find more information. I guess my next question would be…how does one go about telling others this in a way that would encourage them to do it (as opposed to driving them away)?
The Protestant position is not that we are justified by dead faith, but that the true faith that comes from God is never dead. In the Protestant view, it doesn’t need to be made ā€œaliveā€ by charity, but rather itself always gives rise to charity and hence to good works.
Edwin
One of the most confusing topics ever IMHO. I think most all Christians actually share a belief in how Faith pertains to salvation that is VERY similar,…and the arguments stem from different definitions and mingling of terms (grace, faith, works).
 
I think most all Christians actually share a belief in how Faith pertains to salvation that is VERY similar,…and the arguments stem from different definitions and mingling of terms (grace, faith, works).
The Lutheran and Catholic views on Justification (among others) seem to almost converge once you truly understand them. In my opinion it would seem to be almost thwarting the will of God to use the subtle differences for division rather than for understanding.
 
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