P
Presbyterian20
Guest
But, I feel that the argument, however flawed you may feel it, that the reformers had was that the ancient church did not teach transubstantiation. Depending on what sources from the very ancient church you look at, you can draw that conclusion, though I know the Roman Catholic church believes this to be heresy.Right, this is what I am getting at. The Church at the time of the “Reformation” taught Christ is physically, spiritually, fully present…under the appearance of bread and wine. So, if the goal was to take the Church from a position of corruption and get back to the correct Doctrines, why did the Presbyterian church (I’m not sure if they were in the lineage of Zwingli or Calvin…maybe neither…do you happen to know?) reject this Doctrine? That tells me that it was not their intent to get back to the “real” Doctrine, but to change Doctrine. So, what authority did they claim in changing Doctrine? Do not the Scriptures condemn this?