A
Antonius_Lupus
Guest
Dear brethren,
I’ve been troubled by what I see as a disparity between what the Roman Church demands for the Lenten fast as opposed to:
I’m actually kind of weird in this area. I support fervently Vatican II’s changes (I say restorations) of the Roman liturgy and practices, BUT I want to see the Mass and other sacraments celebrated with more reverence and solemnity.
Anywho…
I want to know why the Roman Church limited her fasting and abstinence during Lent with the new code of canon law. It seems quite a difference compared to the older way of doing Lent and almost unheard of compared to the East!
What theological, liturgical, and/or historical reasons were behind this change?
Furthermore, does our new way of fasting and abstinence mean that our Roman Lent, as we celebrate it now, is not as potent as it used to be or as potent as the Eastern Churches? (By “potent” I mean purifying and preparational).
Any thoughts?
I’ve been troubled by what I see as a disparity between what the Roman Church demands for the Lenten fast as opposed to:
- The 1917 Code of Canon Law
& - The fasting practices of our Eastern Catholic brethren during Lent.
I’m actually kind of weird in this area. I support fervently Vatican II’s changes (I say restorations) of the Roman liturgy and practices, BUT I want to see the Mass and other sacraments celebrated with more reverence and solemnity.
Anywho…
I want to know why the Roman Church limited her fasting and abstinence during Lent with the new code of canon law. It seems quite a difference compared to the older way of doing Lent and almost unheard of compared to the East!
What theological, liturgical, and/or historical reasons were behind this change?
Furthermore, does our new way of fasting and abstinence mean that our Roman Lent, as we celebrate it now, is not as potent as it used to be or as potent as the Eastern Churches? (By “potent” I mean purifying and preparational).
Any thoughts?