C
Contarini
Guest
The language is certainly used. Whether it means the same thing that it does in evangelical circles is up for debate, and of course in evangelical circles it can mean a lot of things (as Geisler’s criticisms of Blomberg show).Would you say that the Catholic Church is committed to Biblical inerrancy?
But generally in evangelical circles the term “inerrancy” is used for the view that the Bible is without error in all matters, even incidental ones, while “infallibility” is used for the view that the Bible is an unerring guide on matters of faith and practice, when properly interpreted as a whole (or something like that–the phrasing describes my own view and I won’t claim that everyone would define it the same way).
Catholics seem to use “infallibility” only for the Church and “inerrancy” for any view of Scripture being error-free. The language of Vatican II seems to be interpreted by most Catholic scholars in terms of what I would call “infallibility.” Some Catholics, no doubt including yourself, claim that this is a misreading of Vatican II and that Catholics are committed to the stricter position corresponding to what Protestants would call “inerrancy.” However, like it or not, this is a minority position, and as far as I know no one since Vatican II has been condemned for holding to the position I described above as my own.
This is one of the many reasons why the claim of some Catholics that the terms “conservative” and “liberal” don’t apply to Catholicism are obviously bogus. We have a Catholic teaching which is interpreted in different ways, and the Magisterium since Vatican II has not, to my knowledge, weighed in on which of them is correct.
Edwin