The following is how I understand the propitiation from the link Adam gave me:
God the Father punishes God the Son and, in doing so, He no longer sees Jesus but humanity’s sin (past present future) and puts His wrath upon His Son. Then He sends His Son to Hell (or at least in some sense). Hence all our sins are forgiven and the believer, compelled by the grace of God, need not to do anything but make an act of faith. By doing so, God no longer sees the believers as a child of wrath but a child of God after he has legally adopted the believer as His own. The believer is now saved for all eternity because Christ’s sacrifice (whom already took the believer’s punishment and thus the believer can no longer go to Hell) is legally imputed to the believer. Essentially, Christ’s sacrifice is the only way to adopted the believer into His own because the unsaved believer will forever be prone to sin and lead himself to Hell. It can only take God’s grace to save humanity because man’s works are rubbish and sinful. Hence God’s grace is sufficient and His sacrifice perfect. By declaring the believer righteous, the believer can approach the throne of grace and with confidence say he has been saved by God’s grace alone. Post-salvation experience, the believer is God’s son and any sins (that have already been punished) don’t lead to Hell but a loss of fellowship.
Before I move on to my critique I’d like a Reformed or someone whom believes the same to correct my theological understanding…
The word propitiation occurs in three places in the KJV Bible, as follows:
Romans 3:
25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God
1 John 2:
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 John 4:
10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
And in case the meaning is not sufficiently clear from the above verses, here are some online definitions of propitiation I found with Google:
placation: the act of placating and overcoming distrust and animosity
expiation: the act of atoning for sin or wrongdoing (especially appeasing a deity)
propitiate - make peace with
The appeasing of the wrath of the Deity by prayer or sacrifice when a sin or offence has bbeen committed against him…In Christian thought the death of Christ has usually been regarded as a propitiatory sacrifice to the Father for the sins of the world.
That which turns aside the wrath of God from the sinner. The atonement of Jesus satisfies the just demands of the righteousness and wrath of God against sin (Rom 3:25; Heb 2:17; 1ohn 2:2; 4:10).
The satisfaction of God’s wrath by means of a sacrifice.
propitiate - To conciliate (an offended power); appease.
Thus propitiation basically has the same meaning as atonement. Now Adam had made this comment in another post:
It is because of Christ’s perfect and sufficient righteousness, that God’s love in manifested in two ways, through propitiation and adoption. In Protestant theology, adoption through propitiation is based on the sufficiency of Christ’s righteousness alone. In Catholic theology, I don’t believe that is true.
And I will tell you what he is trying to say with that (in his deliberately obscurantist language). What he is saying is that in Calvinism and Protestant in general, the Atonement of Christ is sufficient to save you
without any voluntary action on your part. In Catholicism, Christ’s Atonement is still sufficient to save; but it requires something on your part as well. God offers you the free gift of the Atonement; but you still have to reach out with your hand and grasp it. God isn’t going to shove it down your throat if you don’t want it. The way you reach out with your hand and grasp it is by willingly submitting to the requirements of the gospel: you willingly repent; you are baptized; you are confirmed and receive the gift of the Holy Ghost; you take communion; and you strive to keep the commandments of God in your life. That is how you voluntarily accept the free gift of the Atonement that Christ offers. But in his theology you don’t! God arbitrarily decides whether you will be saved or damned. If God decides that you will be saved, He will make you accept the offer of the Atonement (by the mere expression of faith alone); and if He wants you to be damned, He will simply make you reject His gospel, and turn into an unbeliever! So the question you want to ask him, in relation to the above quote, is to explain
how “In Catholic theology, [he] doesn’t believe that is true”. What is the difference between Catholic theology and Protestant theology that causes that distinction to arise? That is the question that he should have answered in the first place—but he doesn’t want to! And It shouldn’t be hard for you to figure out why!