A
amgid
Guest
How do you know that it refers to the Father or the Son? It doesn’t say that. It refers specifically to the unique, one and only, ONE God. You mean to tell me that there is no such thing as the ONE God, and it must always be either the Father or the Son? And if it does refer to the ONE God, then that ONE God must obviously be a Person; He must have unique, independent Personality of His own. How can you deny this?Two primary rebuttals to this:
- The use of singular pronouns to refer to God are referring to one of the three Persons. Usually the Father, or in some cases the Son.
Interesting observations. There is a problem with that though. The problem is that throughout the Bible, OT and NT, the ONE God is portrayed as being a Person. He is depicted as possessing a unique and individual Personality. It is not just the Isaiah quotes. The number of quotes that could be given are legion. Here are a few more:
- The understanding of God among the ancient Hebrews was primitive monotheism, and the Scriptures reflect this. In Christianity, Scripture is inspired, but revelation is gradual.
Acts 10:
34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:
35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him
Romans 3:
29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
1 Corinthians 14:
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
All of these portray God as a Person. He possesses a unique and independent Personality. You cannot deny that without denying the Bible.
I can hardly believe what I am reading. You are telling me that the ONE God is not a Person. He does not have an independent Personality of His own. That not only contradicts the letter and spirit of the Bible, but almost borders on blasphemy.Unlike the Quran, the Bible is not taken to be a holy book which came directly from God’s own hand. We recognise the human authors, the instruments who God inspired to reveal Himself in the written Word; therefore, the revelation of God in the Old Testament was gradual, incomplete, and any apparent depiction of God as One Person only is strictly accidental. There is no effort to describe the inner nature of God, and no denial of his Trinitarian Personality–merely the lack of its assertion, as it was not revealed until Christ.
I can’t stop you from thinking as you wish to, or to interpret the scriptures any way you want. But to me the meaning of the scriptural passages quoted are unmistakable and clear. The nature of that union will be exactly the same, identical in fact, to the union that exists between the Father and the Son. That is the plain, obvious meaning of the scriptural verses I had quoted. If you are determined to close your eyes to it you have that choice. But I am not going to.The first part of your conclusion is correct, but the corollary does not at all follow. The verses do not state that the nature of this unity will be “exactly the same” at all. They speak of unity–of all human beings in communion with Christ. There is an analogy to the unity between the Father and the Son; . . .
That is not the definition or interpretation that I put on it. I said that that is inescapable conclusion or corollary that would inevitable follow from your faulty and unscriptural definition of the Trinity.. . . but to extract a theological conclusion from this such that we humans will also become Divine Persons in God is some faulty exegesis taken to the extreme.
I don’t think that that is relevant to my conclusions. I am reading the plain meaning of the word of God. If there was an ambiguity in the word of the Lord which I had quoted you might have a point; but there is none.You might want to read up on the Christian doctrine of the Communion of Saints.
(Continued in the next post…)
amgid