The Turing Test: Affirming the Consequent?

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Well, the group of “objects” called “qualia” is somewhat analogous to the group of mathematical problems called “NP-complete”. There is some reason to think that, while those problems do not look similar (3SAT does not look similar to Traveling salesman problem), the (fast) solution of one will lead to solution of others. Likewise, if we would know how the qualia “red” arises, it would probably be easier to find out how the qualia “sweet taste” arises - we would look for something somewhat similar.

And it is not true that there is nothing in common between qualia. They are all subjective experiences.
So… as I have been saying, call them what they are, subjective experiences.
In other words, you have no idea what we would have to look for, but have faith that we’ll know it when we’ll see it. Unfortunately, that does not look like a plan that is certain to win grants for research…
I gave several definite questions which can be answered, and they will lead to others. That’s how we progress. Unlike debating games, which might flatter egos but lead nowhere. 🤷
 
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polytropos:
Your claim is, I think, too strong. Claiming that something is true without epistemology is one thing. Claiming that something has a truth value without being able to know what the truth value is another.
The question again is: “is the difference significant?”. There can be two different scenarios about a proposition: 1) we do not know right now if the proposition is true or not, but we can investigate and find out – eventually; and 2) it cannot be known in principle if the proposition is true or not. The first kind merits attention, and while the investigation is underway the label we “stick” on that proposition is neither true, nor false rather “undecided”. The second kind does not merit attention, even though it may not be syntactically “meaningless”.
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polytropos:
The argument is that the utterance “I was thinking about you last night” is possibly vacuous, ie. its being uttered need not necessitate that it was true, because its being uttered need not necessitate that the entity uttering it is even capable of thought. If the speaking subject doesn’t know what it means, then what meaning does it have?
We need
  1. a rigorous definition of “thinking” and
  2. an epistemological method to decide if entity “X” is thinking or not, and
  3. a definition of the “meaning”.
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polytropos:
The point is that the Turing test does not establish that utterances have semantic content for the mechanical speaker. It is hard to imagine a model of thought on which utterances can lack meaning.
Ah, but the semantic content is not something that exists in an objective manner. Between the two of us, we can create an artificial language, which is perfectly meaningful for us, and sounds like a meaningless (or even misleading) gobbledygook for everyone else. There is no “abstract, objective” meaning to words and propositions. The meaning gets established in a communication channel between two entities, who “agree” on the meaning. I cannot emphasize enough that the “meaning” is the result of agreement.
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polytropos:
Another caveat: If I knew that it was not a human being, then I would not regard it as morally egregious as it is to torture a human being. That does not mean I would “cease to object” in general. I would object to the torturing of a cat even though it is not a human being; I regard the torturing of a human being as a greater crime than the torturing of the cat, but I object to the torturing of the cat nonetheless.
Ok. But this is just a side track. The “torturing” aspect was only a convenient example to highlight the central problem: namely the question of emulation vs. the real thing.

The emulation does not have to be identical to the real stuff in EVERY respect. Just like in the Turing test, we do not care if the tested entity is “made of” electronic or biological parts. We only care if the verbal and comprehension skills are comparable to humans. And the comprehension can only be gauged indirectly – by evaluating the responses of the other party.
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polytropos:
Odd, since by all appearances you and Jewel endorse their verification principle.
I cannot answer for inocente, only for myself. But you do not read the “appearances” correctly. I definitely deny that the “verification principle” is applicable to ALL propositions (which was the assertion of the logical positivists). This principle is not applicable to the propositions in an abstract, axiomatic system (one cannot “verify” the axioms of mathematics and all the non-axiomatic propositions are true if and only if they are logical corollary of the axioms). It is also not applicable to the subjective propositions like “I prefer chocolate ice cream over the vanilla flavored one”. However, it is applicable to the statements pertaining the external, objective reality. If a proposition reflects the external reality, it is “true” proposition, otherwise it is not.
 
If we encountered seemingly intelligent life, then I think we would need to acknowledge and act as though they are seemingly intelligent (like, as I’ve admitted, if someone constructed a dummy that simulates human suffering, we would act empathetic toward it, insofar that it fools us). That is not really relevant to the point I’m making, which is that engaging consistently in a system of human language is not a sufficient condition for thinking. Aliens would be a tough situation, and it’s hard to say how we would deal with them (we’d hopefully err on the safe side). But if I sit at my computer and design an artificial intelligence, I need not doubt that I’ve not created a thinking being.
That wasn’t quite the point I was making. I was trying to think of how a race of intelligent machines would determine whether humans can think. I can’t help feeling that they could use your logic to prove that they think and we can’t, just as you use it to prove we think and they can’t.

Try this instead:
  1. We know how computers do things. Often no one person knows a complete system and sometimes the computer has evolved parts of the system by itself, but we can always be certain that in principle we know, because we know the instruction set and architecture of the hardware.
  2. Currently we can’t do this with humans. We only know bits and pieces. For instance, the behavior of individual neurons is only comparable with individual transistors in a computer chip, if even that.
  3. I think your argument relies on this disparity in our knowledge. If we knew the architecture of the brain, we would know how thoughts progress. We could break them down into their elements (the equivalents of instructions and bytes). We would then be able to describe the same thought in different ways using different symbol sets. And then all the things which worry you about machines, the semantic content problem, truth functions and so on, all apply to us.
  4. I think you would then be up a gum tree without a paddle. So it seems to me that your argument relies on there being some eternally unsolvable mystery of how the brain works.
 
Another caveat: If I knew that it was not a human being, then I would not regard it as morally egregious as it is to torture a human being. That does not mean I would “cease to object” in general. I would object to the torturing of a cat even though it is not a human being; I regard the torturing of a human being as a greater crime than the torturing of the cat, but I object to the torturing of the cat nonetheless.
There’s an interesting case before the courts at the moment, a writ of habeas corpus for a chimpanzee. Don’t know what their chances are, but it’s part of a continuing trend. Who knows what people in 100 years time will think.

“This is no stunt. The Nonhuman Rights Project has been working on this legal strategy for years, sifting through decisions in all 50 states to find one that is strong on what is called common law, and one that recognizes animals as legal persons for the purpose of being the beneficiary of a trust.” - nytimes.com/2013/12/03/science/rights-group-sues-to-have-chimp-recognized-as-legal-person.html?_r=0
 
I was trying to think of how a race of intelligent machines would determine whether humans can think. I can’t help feeling that they could use your logic to prove that they think and we can’t, just as you use it to prove we think and they can’t.
I realize. I responded about us encountering another race since that has been brought up previously and that was the situation you seemed to be modified. To clarify, I have not claimed that alien races “can’t” think (I also admit that if we encountered one, we would probably have to assume that they do, though we could be wrong). The point I’m making is that the Turing test is not sufficient to show the presence of many of the fundamental subjective qualities akin to those of our own thoughts, not that it proves that machines don’t think. I’m noting that Turing’s argument fails (if it is construed as showing that machines could think as we think), not saying that Turing’s argument, by failing, proves the opposite of what he wanted to prove (that would be much too strong of a claim).
  1. I think your argument relies on this disparity in our knowledge. If we knew the architecture of the brain, we would know how thoughts progress. We could break them down into their elements (the equivalents of instructions and bytes). We would then be able to describe the same thought in different ways using different symbol sets. And then all the things which worry you about machines, the semantic content problem, truth functions and so on, all apply to us.
Not exactly. A substantial part of my argument is that science does not disclose the types of facts that would lend themselves to resolving your disparity. Modern science was developed by stipulating that the subjective aspects of reality are “secondary qualities,” which do not exist in the same objective way that “primary qualities” (ie. mass, electron charge, etc.) do. It is rather straightforward that, by doing so, it is intrinsically limited to resolving questions of mind, and some overhaul is needed if it is to succeed. That does not mean that it cannot tell us a lot about the brain and even about the mind, just that it has self-imposed limitations that prevent it from admitting an explanation of subjectivity. These difficulties will face science no matter how much it learns. It seems like a complete neuroscience, carried out under current methodological assumptions, will simply not offer a full explanation of our thought processes. That might lead some naturalists to deny the existence of our thoughts, but others might realize that their method was just limited.
 
inocente;11452124:
polytropos;11450301:
I am saying that intelligence, by any credible definition, is fundamentally subjective, and the lack of a necessary connection between intelligence and human-like behavior imposes limits in principle on what the Turing test could ever show about the subjective state of those it observes.
That can’t be. If intelligence was fundamentally subjective then any of us could feel as intelligent as Einstein and win a bevvy of Nobels.
I think we both know this is not what I meant. I mean that thinking is fundamentally subjective, and only someone desperately trying to evade a conclusion would hold that thinking is not required for intelligence.
You’ll see you said “intelligence” originally, not “thinking”, and I replied to say that intelligence is not subjective. There are IQ tests and so on, it can be observed and measured.

So if intelligence can be measured, and if as you say thinking is required for intelligence, we have now in principle cracked how to know if machines think - just measure their intelligence. Get your guys to contact my guys, they can hammer out the details.
But subjective experiences and qualia are referring to the same thing. No one is inventing qualia anymore than they are inventing subjective experiences. The problems in explaining both of them are the same. “Qualia” is a specialized philosophical term, which might explain your denial of it, like all things philosophical, but it’s difficult to deny one and accept the other.
You know as well as me that many philosophers reject the term, it’s simply an unnecessary and misleading hypothesis.

(Philosophers reject qualia for various reasons. My reason is I think it’s sloppy and misleading to lump disparate subjective experiences together on such a tenuous basis).
 
The question again is: “is the difference significant?”. There can be two different scenarios about a proposition: 1) we do not know right now if the proposition is true or not, but we can investigate and find out – eventually; and 2) it cannot be known in principle if the proposition is true or not. The first kind merits attention, and while the investigation is underway the label we “stick” on that proposition is neither true, nor false rather “undecided”. The second kind does not merit attention, even though it may not be syntactically “meaningless”.
I would agree that it does not merit scientific attention if science is restricted by its method to verification by physical evidence, but that is not the same as claiming the statements are meaningless, unless one has a prior metaphysical commitment to eliminative materialism or some form of scientism. Propositions may be meaningful in ways that cannot be carried by or embodied in physical media. To insist that meaning must be embodied in physical events in order to be meaningful requires its own proof, which I doubt can be demonstrably shown to be true as a proposition by any “objective” physical means.
We need
  1. a rigorous definition of “thinking” and
  2. an epistemological method to decide if entity “X” is thinking or not, and
  3. a definition of the “meaning”.
Ah, but the semantic content is not something that exists in an objective manner. Between the two of us, we can create an artificial language, which is perfectly meaningful for us, and sounds like a meaningless (or even misleading) gobbledygook for everyone else. There is no “abstract, objective” meaning to words and propositions. The meaning gets established in a communication channel between two entities, who “agree” on the meaning. I cannot emphasize enough that the “meaning” is the result of agreement.
This is another example of thinking going off the rails.

How can either of two parties “agree” on the meaning of anything without having a prior conviction that the words or propositions are meaningful to themselves? The “meaningfulness” is not created by the agreement, the meaningfulness is established separately and then a joint agreement is reached that both parties agree regarding the meaning.

I might accept that the data spewing out of a computer is meaningful, but my accepting that it is does not require the computer to agree with me. Obviously the information was programmed into the computer by someone who did decide it was meaningful, but that did not require my agreement. It did require the programmer to have a prior belief that some intelligent entity similar to him/her self did exist to whom the information will be meaningful in order to justify his/her effort, but the meaning as embedded in the information only required the determination of one party - the programmer. It might never be meaningful to anyone else, but it still carries meaning.
Ok. But this is just a side track. The “torturing” aspect was only a convenient example to highlight the central problem: namely the question of emulation vs. the real thing.

The emulation does not have to be identical to the real stuff in EVERY respect. Just like in the Turing test, we do not care if the tested entity is “made of” electronic or biological parts. We only care if the verbal and comprehension skills are comparable to humans. And the comprehension can only be gauged indirectly – by evaluating the responses of the other party.

I cannot answer for inocente, only for myself. But you do not read the “appearances” correctly. I definitely deny that the “verification principle” is applicable to ALL propositions (which was the assertion of the logical positivists). This principle is not applicable to the propositions in an abstract, axiomatic system (one cannot “verify” the axioms of mathematics and all the non-axiomatic propositions are true if and only if they are logical corollary of the axioms). It is also not applicable to the subjective propositions like “I prefer chocolate ice cream over the vanilla flavored one”. However, it is applicable to the statements pertaining the external, objective reality. If a proposition reflects the external reality, it is “true” proposition, otherwise it is not.
Why deny the verification principle has applicability to subjective propositions except under the presumption that subjects capable of subjective experiences actually do exist? If subjects do exist, then why can’t these same subjects be capable of other meaningful propositions that are inter-subjectively meaningful, though not objectively verifiable? I.e., the propositions are not objectively verifiable but still meaningful between two subjects qua subjects? We would then have “meaning” even under your definition because we have agreement on a subjective (though not objective) level between two subjects.
 
RE: Post #144
So if intelligence can be measured, and if as you say thinking is required for intelligence, we have now in principle cracked how to know if machines think - just measure their intelligence. Get your guys to contact my guys, they can hammer out the details.
Again, logic goes astray.

If thinking then intelligence.
Machines exhibit intelligence.
Therefore machines think.

If a man then mortal
Elephants are mortal.
Therefore elephants are men.
 
Jewel34;11469328:
I cannot answer for inocente, only for myself. But you do not read the “appearances” correctly. I definitely deny that the “verification principle” is applicable to ALL
propositions (which was the assertion of the logical positivists). This principle is not applicable to the propositions in an abstract, axiomatic system (one cannot “verify” the axioms of mathematics and all the non-axiomatic propositions are true if and only if they are logical corollary of the axioms). It is also not applicable to the subjective propositions like “I prefer chocolate ice cream over the vanilla flavored one”. However, it is applicable to the statements pertaining the external, objective reality. If a proposition reflects the external reality, it is “true” proposition, otherwise it is not.
Odd, since by all appearances you and Jewel endorse their verification principle.
I think I first heard about verificationism as Gödel’s victim. I like the engineering approach:

*It doesn’t matter how beautiful your theory is, it doesn’t matter how smart you are. If it doesn’t agree with experiment, it’s wrong. - Richard Feynman

If it looks like a duck, and quacks like a duck, we have at least to consider the possibility that we have a small aquatic bird of the family Anatidae on our hands. - Douglas Adams

The universe is the way it is whether we like it or not. - Lawrence Krauss

Thousand are thy lotus feet, and yet thou hast no feet; Thousand are thy noses to smell, yet thou hast no nose. - Mantra, Azure Salver*
 
If it looks like a duck, and quacks like a duck, we have at least to consider the possibility that we have a small aquatic bird of the family Anatidae on our hands. - Douglas Adams
The problem is that “a duck” is, presumably, an objective and limited characterization to begin with. We don’t really comprehend what a duck actually is, metaphysically speaking.

It also presumes that a trite characterization is sufficient to fully understand what it means to “be a duck.” Which it doesn’t.

Consider Thomas Nagel’s What is It Like to Be a Bat.

Why would we presume that looking and quacking like a duck completely exhausts what it means to exist as a duck?

A human person or thinking being is not an objective entity in the same way that a duck “appears” to us. At least, the characteristics (such as subjectivity and capacity for thinking) that we have an interest in defining are not so objectively apparent.

If we have no further interest in what “being a duck” means than a cursory classification or breeding of ducks, looking and quacking might suffice.

However, regarding human beings, classification and breeding are not the principle interests of a robust philosophy of mind, at least not for me. Although those might be for someone who is content with “if it looks like a duck” as the only test required to exhaustively characterize what it means to be human.

Perhaps it is possible to “profoundly” answer Nagel’s question with, “If it looks like an owl and hoots like an owl, then it is an owl.”

But surely, that is an insufficient answer to the meaningful question he is considering.

It is also a rather deficient means to answer the question of “What is it like to be human?” Especially considering that we have privileged access to “being human” which allows us to consider the question much more deeply than by an unhelpful: “If it looks like a human and talks like a human then it is a human.”

Surely we can do better than that, given that we are not ducks or bats, but humans, no?
 
So… as I have been saying, call them what they are, subjective experiences.
Why…? Why should we prefer two longer words to one short that is also used by professional philosophers? I do not see a difference of meaning or connotation here. Thus, as far, as I understand, it is equivalent to insisting that one must say “rational animal” instead of “human”…
I gave several definite questions which can be answered, and they will lead to others. That’s how we progress. Unlike debating games, which might flatter egos but lead nowhere. 🤷
Well, if you have such a low opinion about Philosophy, what are you doing in the Philosophy subforum…? 🙂
 
That wasn’t quite the point I was making. I was trying to think of how a race of intelligent machines would determine whether humans can think. I can’t help feeling that they could use your logic to prove that they think and we can’t, just as you use it to prove we think and they can’t.

Try this instead:
  1. We know how computers do things. Often no one person knows a complete system and sometimes the computer has evolved parts of the system by itself, but we can always be certain that in principle we know, because we know the instruction set and architecture of the hardware.
  2. Currently we can’t do this with humans. We only know bits and pieces. For instance, the behavior of individual neurons is only comparable with individual transistors in a computer chip, if even that.
  3. I think your argument relies on this disparity in our knowledge. If we knew the architecture of the brain, we would know how thoughts progress. We could break them down into their elements (the equivalents of instructions and bytes). We would then be able to describe the same thought in different ways using different symbol sets. And then all the things which worry you about machines, the semantic content problem, truth functions and so on, all apply to us.
  4. I think you would then be up a gum tree without a paddle. So it seems to me that your argument relies on there being some eternally unsolvable mystery of how the brain works.
Well, let’s look at something similar. Let’s take a different directly undetectable quality with significant practical importance: “not being fake” of money. By itself, we cannot check if the given bank note has been issued by a legitimate institution with the right of money emission. Yet we have some indirect ways (“heuristics”, if you wish) to detect fake bank notes (for example, water marks).

Now, let’s imagine an equivalent of Turing test for money. A group of experts would look at the bank note and try to find out if it is real or fake. The “weak” version of the “Turing test” would declare that, well, if they concluded that the bank note is real then they have concluded that it is real. That, of course is true (though trivial).

But the “strong” version of Turing test (criticised in the original post of this thread) claims that in such case we must believe that the bank note is real even after we find out that someone (not a Central bank) has been trying to make it to fool the experts. With explanations that “Maybe someone replaced that bank note with the real one when no one was looking!” (mostly equivalent to the Turing’s answer to the “theological objection”).

Now I think that accepting such explanations would not be reasonable. And that the “real” Turing test fails in a similar way: the machine that passes the Turing test is going to be specifically made to pass it, to fool the experts. Why should we ignore that piece of evidence…?

On the other hand, we wouldn’t have such a piece of evidence in case of an alien that looks like a machine. In such case it might be reasonable to conclude that it (or would that be “he”?) is rational and act accordingly. Then again, we would be rather unlikely to run a Turing test for such an alien… After all, the alien is not guaranteed to like the test… 🙂

Or, if you do not like the example with money, try a different one. In the “Popular culture” subforum we have a thread (forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=838850) where a claim that illusionists do “real” magic has been mentioned. The reasoning is similar: the “expert” has failed to find a difference, therefore, there is no difference. Do you think it is reasonable to conclude so and ignore the fact that they are called, well, “illusionists”…?
 
I realize. I responded about us encountering another race since that has been brought up previously and that was the situation you seemed to be modified. To clarify, I have not claimed that alien races “can’t” think (I also admit that if we encountered one, we would probably have to assume that they do, though we could be wrong). The point I’m making is that the Turing test is not sufficient to show the presence of many of the fundamental subjective qualities akin to those of our own thoughts, not that it proves that machines don’t think. I’m noting that Turing’s argument fails (if it is construed as showing that machines could think as we think), not saying that Turing’s argument, by failing, proves the opposite of what he wanted to prove (that would be much too strong of a claim).
I think we’re still talking at cross purposes.

Suppose I am a judge, and you and your friend come to me, you saying vanilla flavor milkshake is best while your friend prefers strawberry. You ask me to judge which of you is correct. But neither of you have given me any objective way to choose, all I have are subjective claims, I can’t make a ruling.

Now suppose you and an alien machine, part of a group which flew to Earth, come along asking me to judge which of you truly thinks. You ask me to judge using your criteria of fundamental subjective qualities, and the alien machine agrees with that basis. You then say you can think and it can’t, while it says it can think and you can’t. But neither of you have given me any objective way to choose, all I have are subjective claims, I can’t make a ruling.

Whereas Turing gives me a way to judge, and up to now he’s the only one to give me a way.
Not exactly. A substantial part of my argument is that science does not disclose the types of facts that would lend themselves to resolving your disparity. Modern science was developed by stipulating that the subjective aspects of reality are “secondary qualities,” which do not exist in the same objective way that “primary qualities” (ie. mass, electron charge, etc.) do. It is rather straightforward that, by doing so, it is intrinsically limited to resolving questions of mind, and some overhaul is needed if it is to succeed. That does not mean that it cannot tell us a lot about the brain and even about the mind, just that it has self-imposed limitations that prevent it from admitting an explanation of subjectivity. These difficulties will face science no matter how much it learns. It seems like a complete neuroscience, carried out under current methodological assumptions, will simply not offer a full explanation of our thought processes. That might lead some naturalists to deny the existence of our thoughts, but others might realize that their method was just limited.
Not sure why any sane person would deny the existence of their thoughts.

It’s interesting that those philosophers who believe in qualia can’t explain them yet expect neuroscience to do so. Do they complain that religion is limited because reading the NT doesn’t tell them what it feels like to know Christ? Why do they expect others to describe in words what they can’t put into words?

Science rejects unprovable beliefs, but does not treat subjective aspects of reality as second class. Every day, peoples’ feelings, tastes and opinions are used as objective data. For example, it is perfectly legitimate science to study why some people think subjective feelings are second class. 🙂
 
Why…? Why should we prefer two longer words to one short that is also used by professional philosophers? I do not see a difference of meaning or connotation here. Thus, as far, as I understand, it is equivalent to insisting that one must say “rational animal” instead of “human”…
You do realize that the concept carries baggage and a lot of professional philosophers don’t accept it either? For starters, see: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qualia#Critics_of_qualia
Well, if you have such a low opinion about Philosophy, what are you doing in the Philosophy subforum…? 🙂
I never said anything about philosophy, which I notice has acquired an SCC (Sudden Spontaneous Capitalization).

If you believe that all philosophers agree with you and none disagree with you, or that anyone who doesn’t agree with you is against all philosophy, then you must have an extremely low opinion of philosophy, so what are you doing on the Philosophy subforum…? 😛
 
I never said anything about philosophy, which I notice has acquired an SCC (Sudden Spontaneous Capitalization).
Uh…

…wouldn’t that be SSC for Sudden Spontaneous Capitalization?
 
Well, let’s look at something similar. Let’s take a different directly undetectable quality with significant practical importance: “not being fake” of money. By itself, we cannot check if the given bank note has been issued by a legitimate institution with the right of money emission. Yet we have some indirect ways (“heuristics”, if you wish) to detect fake bank notes (for example, water marks).

Now, let’s imagine an equivalent of Turing test for money. A group of experts would look at the bank note and try to find out if it is real or fake. The “weak” version of the “Turing test” would declare that, well, if they concluded that the bank note is real then they have concluded that it is real. That, of course is true (though trivial).

But the “strong” version of Turing test (criticised in the original post of this thread) claims that in such case we must believe that the bank note is real even after we find out that someone (not a Central bank) has been trying to make it to fool the experts. With explanations that “Maybe someone replaced that bank note with the real one when no one was looking!” (mostly equivalent to the Turing’s answer to the “theological objection”).

Now I think that accepting such explanations would not be reasonable. And that the “real” Turing test fails in a similar way: the machine that passes the Turing test is going to be specifically made to pass it, to fool the experts. Why should we ignore that piece of evidence…?

On the other hand, we wouldn’t have such a piece of evidence in case of an alien that looks like a machine. In such case it might be reasonable to conclude that it (or would that be “he”?) is rational and act accordingly. Then again, we would be rather unlikely to run a Turing test for such an alien… After all, the alien is not guaranteed to like the test… 🙂

Or, if you do not like the example with money, try a different one. In the “Popular culture” subforum we have a thread (forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=838850) where a claim that illusionists do “real” magic has been mentioned. The reasoning is similar: the “expert” has failed to find a difference, therefore, there is no difference. Do you think it is reasonable to conclude so and ignore the fact that they are called, well, “illusionists”…?
In an episode of the Simpsons everyone in the town, including the TV stations, police and law court, sting Homer to teach him a lesson.

Probably anyone can be conned about anything if you throw enough money and resource at the deception. All a posteriori knowledge would fall victim though, not just this, we wouldn’t be able to trust anything, it’s the road to paranoia.

(But in this case, a machine clever enough to con us would, kind of by definition, have to be intelligent enough to con us.)

You seem to be suggesting that we use looser rules of evidence to judge humans than machines, that a human is innocent until proven guilty while a machine is guilty until proven innocent. I think the ethics are very dangerous, since it hinges on how you decide who is human and who is not, and we know all too well where that has led in the past.
 
The problem is that “a duck” is, presumably, an objective and limited characterization to begin with. We don’t really comprehend what a duck actually is, metaphysically speaking.

It also presumes that a trite characterization is sufficient to fully understand what it means to “be a duck.” Which it doesn’t.

Consider Thomas Nagel’s What is It Like to Be a Bat.

Why would we presume that looking and quacking like a duck completely exhausts what it means to exist as a duck?

A human person or thinking being is not an objective entity in the same way that a duck “appears” to us. At least, the characteristics (such as subjectivity and capacity for thinking) that we have an interest in defining are not so objectively apparent.

If we have no further interest in what “being a duck” means than a cursory classification or breeding of ducks, looking and quacking might suffice.

However, regarding human beings, classification and breeding are not the principle interests of a robust philosophy of mind, at least not for me. Although those might be for someone who is content with “if it looks like a duck” as the only test required to exhaustively characterize what it means to be human.

Perhaps it is possible to “profoundly” answer Nagel’s question with, “If it looks like an owl and hoots like an owl, then it is an owl.”

But surely, that is an insufficient answer to the meaningful question he is considering.

It is also a rather deficient means to answer the question of “What is it like to be human?” Especially considering that we have privileged access to “being human” which allows us to consider the question much more deeply than by an unhelpful: “If it looks like a human and talks like a human then it is a human.”

Surely we can do better than that, given that we are not ducks or bats, but humans, no?
“If it looks like a duck” is a long way of saying induction. It says don’t expect absolute proofs if we want to make progress. Go with what we’ve got, get the job done. Less librarian, more marine. Oorah.

By the same logic, “duck” itself is an approximation, a category invented by humans. There is no such thing as an objective essence of duck out there beyond the stars.

We could try to be more accurate. We could sequence the entire genome and decide which sequences a duck must possess. But that is still us inventing a definition. And it’s not how we define duck, in practice we define duck by saying… if it looks like a duck and quacks like a duck then it’s a duck.

Certainly no one would agree that a human must possess a specific genome. Who would decide the rules by which ethnic groups might be excluded and called sub-human? Who would accept that scientists get to judge us? No, the only ethical way is if she looks like a human and behaves like a human then she is human.

So it turns out that “If it looks like a duck” is a foundation stone of ethics. 😃

Bat-ness, the character of experiencing what it is to be a bat, depends on the entire living configuration of matter which is the bat. It’s the narrative of being a bat that is alive. A dead bat does not experience bat-ness. A non-bat does not experience bat-ness. There’s no mystery about bat-ness, it’s just what it’s like to be a live bat.
 
“If it looks like a duck” is a long way of saying induction. It says don’t expect absolute proofs if we want to make progress. Go with what we’ve got, get the job done. Less librarian, more marine. Oorah.

By the same logic, “duck” itself is an approximation, a category invented by humans. There is no such thing as an objective essence of duck out there beyond the stars.
The essence need not be “beyond the stars,” but in reality itself. How would you know there is no objective essence without a presumption?

If “duck” is an approximation, what is it an approximation of or about? You assume the “reality” of an objective essence in that statement.

There are two assumptions possible
  1. A “duck” is only what human determination makes it.
  2. A human determination of “duck” is an attempt to grasp the reality of what a “duck” really is as an aspect of all reality.
The first is human centered as if our knowledge is prime and determines reality.

The second views the enterprise from a reality focus rather than as knowledge focused.

The difference might be summed up as the difference between “our knowledge tells us” and “reality tells us.”

The first assumes “duck” is only what we decide it to mean.

The second assumes the “duck” is real and exists in itself and apart from our determinations about it as an aspect of a larger world view that reality exists “in itself” and apart from our approximations that, hopefully, draw us closer to it.

Truth exists, truth is not just our current “opinion” of things, though our current opinions may be distant or close approximations of reality.

Added after edit

Unfortunately, a great deal of “science” that occurs today is of the Type 1) variety. “We” will decide what reality is, based upon the means “we” have decided to use to determine reality.

A more fundamental approach would be to recognize that our methods are “our methods” and limited, but there is room for allowing reality to “reveal itself” to us under its terms, not our predetermined ones.

The Turing Test is another “predetermination” that fails to take account of what it tries to explain in the first place. Thinking is reducible to or “nothing but” behaviour, therefore certain behaviours entail thinking. Thinking is denied in the redefinition.
 
Certainly no one would agree that a human must possess a specific genome. Who would decide the rules by which ethnic groups might be excluded and called sub-human? Who would accept that scientists get to judge us? No, the only ethical way is if she looks like a human and behaves like a human then she is human.

So it turns out that “If it looks like a duck” is a foundation stone of ethics. 😃
That might be your “foundation stone” of ethics, but it isn’t a sufficient one, precisely because “behaving” like a human leaves undefined exactly what “like a human” means. How can the behaviour of a human (trivially defined as the behaviour humans demonstrate) suffice as an ethical foundation? Humans kill, rape, steal, etc. These are all entailed under “behaves like a human” which means, according to your stipulation, that these are all ethically acceptable because they are human behaviours.

Ethical cannot mean or equate to “human” because it would then not make sense to characterize some behaviours as inhuman or unethical since humans do, in fact, engage in them.

I have no qualms characterizing rape or child molestation as “sub-human” even though some humans do engage in these behaviours. Ethical value (worth) does not hinge upon the current psychological state or set of behaviours exhibited by an individual at any moment in time precisely because psychology and behaviours are malleable in a way that “human” is not. Humans may act in sub-human, inhuman and unethical ways without completely foregoing their humanity in any final sense. Although, that, too, may be possible.
 
You do realize that the concept carries baggage and a lot of professional philosophers don’t accept it either? For starters, see: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qualia#Critics_of_qualia
Yet I do not see many recommendations to say “subjective experiences” instead of “qualia” there. I suspect that the ones who reject “qualia” will generally reject “subjective experiences” as well… Did I miss someone…?
I never said anything about philosophy, which I notice has acquired an SCC (Sudden Spontaneous Capitalization).
Let’s see:
I gave several definite questions which can be answered, and they will lead to others. That’s how we progress. Unlike debating games, which might flatter egos but lead nowhere. 🤷
If “debating games” does not refer to Philosophy (as far, as I remember, the names of “subjects” tend to be capitalised in English - aren’t they?), what do those words refer to…?
 
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