Apologies, didn’t mean to offend. I was being serious though in the sense that you appear to have decided that (a) There’s real-thinking and pseudo-thinking. (b) Only humans can do the first while non-humans can only do the second. (c) Only humans can distinguish real-thinking from pseudo-thinking.
But of course one has to distinguish between real-thinking and pseudo-thinking. Take a calculator: I can type 2+2 in it and get 4. I could also do that in my head. Does it think? It seems that one has two options: say that it does, or say that it doesn’t. If one says that it does, then one has defined “thinking” incredibly broadly, for all that need distinguish the calculator from an abacus is speed.
If one says that it doesn’t, then one has conceded that
there are algorithmic processes mapping (name removed by moderator)uts to outputs that do not constitute thinking; hence, there is some line between real thinking and pseudo-thinking. The question is, where is the line, and why should I believe that a machine that passes the Turing test has passed it?
To echo questions I’ve asked before (receiving no answer, though I did not ask you): if human intelligence is not different in principle from what a machine is doing, then what makes
humans the
standard of intelligence, such that a machine that can act human is “intelligent”? Why is parsing human speech and mapping human language to some socially acceptable response a paradigmatically
intelligent activity? If computers can be intelligent, then it should not be human-like qualities that account for it, for two “intelligent” computers should be able to chat themselves (or sit there and run calculations?) as alternative manifestations of their intelligence.
But this seems misguided: I wrote a program the other day that can generate legal anagrams for Scrabble. The program couldn’t fool me into thinking it was human (because I didn’t program it to do that), but it was performing calculations and algorithms far more complex than I’d care to do manually. But what makes it intelligent?
So the proponent of machine intelligent is faced with a conundrum: the machine algorithmically maps (name removed by moderator)uts to outputs. It doesn’t care what the (name removed by moderator)uts and outputs are: it might be the syntax for a calculus problem, or it might be soundbytes from a microphone into which a human just spoke. The machine processes it - perhaps in a sophisticated way - and produces some result. What makes its processing of speech principally different from its processing of an equation? (Perhaps we could even create an isomorphism between linguistic and mathematical systems, so that the machine actually
does the same things internally, and the only difference is the way we interpret the results - it is certainly conceivable.) I find the Turing test proponent committed to accepting intelligence of all machines (perhaps of some threshold complexity) whether they fool us or not. The Turing test just seems to add an emotional element to it, so that we can fool ourselves into thinking it’s human.
I do find many of your comments offensive. You are shoehorning a philosophical discussion into thinly veiled accusations of bigotry. It’s a pretty serious charge to insinuate that my attitude toward computers is comparable to discrimination toward women or black people, as you did in #19.
Yes and that’s fine. But for reasons unexplained Quine imagines there must only be One True® Model. Why? Is Picasso’s Guernica the One True® Model or is Beethoven’s Ninth? The question doesn’t make sense. Why do these guys insist on hit parades? [stalks off muttering, stage left]
Can you quote where you think Quine is imagining that there is only “One True® Model”?
Can you also clarify what I see as a dilemma (but where I must just be misunderstanding you): In post #45, you said, “I’m a monotheist, if one god is enough then surely one reality is too?” If I am reading you right, you are taking issue with Quine thinking that there isn’t just one reality. Here you seem to be taking issue with there just being “One True® Model.” So it’s a problem for Quine to think that there are “multiple realities” but also a problem for him to think there’s one “model.” Are these related claims? Is Quine committed to both? Do you mean the same thing by model and reality? Am I misunderstanding you?
It seems to me like Quine accepts that there is some single way that reality is, the aim of science being to model it. The problem of underdetermination is that evidence can confirm multiple theories and can’t always separate them in principle. I’m just using this as an example of an admixture of logical and empirical problems that would not be overcome by God’s omnipotence.