The Turing Test: Affirming the Consequent?

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We don’t know enough about intelligence to program it. In any case it would take too long and have too many bugs.
Interesting admission.

Yet, below you seem to allow that intelligence is not so difficult to “program” precisely because it only requires a certain level of programming in order to “take over” the “evolution” of its own learning. Therefore, intelligence is not too difficult to program, but, rather, actually involves less programming (below) than you seem to insist (above) that it really does require because it “would take too long and have too many bugs.”

So which of the two positions is your actual one, really?
But we can write programs to allow a machine to learn and evolve capabilities. The technology is now cheap enough for anyone to play, and there are basic research programs along with the military and commercial applications, so this field is developing.
 
You lost me. If and when a machine plays Turing’s game and wins, then the results will be peer reviewed, published, and every critic in the world will be on the case. The experiment will be repeated many times by different teams trying to disprove the results. Religions which don’t believe God would let a machine think will buy some of the machines and test them for themselves. Some of the machines will be put on the internet and every man and his dog will try to catch them out.
There is nothing about all that in the Turing’s paper. He asks only “Will the interrogator decide wrongly as often when the game is played like this as he does when the game is played between a man and a woman?”. “The interrogator” - in singular, not plural. If necessary, that could be replaced by a panel of judges: then we would get the “frequency” with one “experiment”. Nothing else is required. And if the Turing test is sufficient, nothing more will be required.

Also, let’s not forget: passing the Turing test is not going to have much to do with science. If it will happen, it will be a publicity stunt. And something similar has happened before: when “Deep Blue” has won against Kasparov. Did IBM made all source code open…? No, they have “retired” the computer. There was nothing to be gained by a rematch. And the computer had special hardware, thus “Some of the machines will be put on the internet” wouldn’t have worked that well. What makes you think it is going to be different with Turing test?

Also, “Religions which don’t believe God would let a machine think will buy some of the machines and test them for themselves.” is completely false. For example, if I think that Turing test is just something good for “public relations”, why would I want to repeat that test myself…?
OK, what exactly is unclear here…?
You lost me again. You don’t ask for 100% proof that someone loves you or that the café didn’t poison your coffee, or in virtually anything in life, so please explain why you need 100% proof in this one case.
I did. Here you are replying to that explanation… Sorry, but that is starting to look silly…

And if you do not like “100% proof”, can you offer a “90% proof”…? Or “10% proof”…? Any certainty at all…? Any reason to think that, let’s say, Turing test is not “malfunctioning” with the machines…?
You lost me again. Why do you think it’s called private revelation? If someone won’t accept Turing’s test, why would they accept what someone else says God told them? Suppose God reveals it to a Hindu, why would a Catholic believe her? Why would God follow your orders and tell anyone anyway? Are you proposing we close all universities and just fill up books with all the things people say God told them?
And here it starts to look even more silly. You started with a “challenge” for me to come up with something (anything!) that would persuade me (just me) that God has given a machine an ability to think. I have given you one possibility and now, instead of acknowledging that the challenge has been met, you act as if I was supposed to give you something completely different!

Also, why does it matter if someone else accepts anything? Turing’s paper’s first paragraph explicitly ridicules similar approaches with the joke about “Gallup poll”.
Could we try to get back to that little blue-green planet called Earth?
Ah there…? Well, on that planet there are no computers that have passed any non-trivial Turing test anyway. Thus this whole discussion is pointless. Right…? 😃

Now seriously: could you, please, try to argue without such “statements”…? They do not seem to add much to the discussion.
 
Interesting admission.

Yet, below you seem to allow that intelligence is not so difficult to “program” precisely because it only requires a certain level of programming in order to “take over” the “evolution” of its own learning. Therefore, intelligence is not too difficult to program, but, rather, actually involves less programming (below) than you seem to insist (above) that it really does require because it “would take too long and have too many bugs.”

So which of the two positions is your actual one, really?
It is much more feasible to make a machine to turn out ten million widgets than to make them one by one by hand. It is much more feasible to program a machine to paint the Mandelbrot Set than to try to paint it by hand. It is much more feasible to program a machine to evolve its own intelligence than to try to program it all by hand.

Why do you think that’s a admission? Why do you think there are two positions there? What is unclear?
 
There is nothing about all that in the Turing’s paper. He asks only “Will the interrogator decide wrongly as often when the game is played like this as he does when the game is played between a man and a woman?”. “The interrogator” - in singular, not plural. If necessary, that could be replaced by a panel of judges: then we would get the “frequency” with one “experiment”. Nothing else is required. And if the Turing test is sufficient, nothing more will be required.

Also, let’s not forget: passing the Turing test is not going to have much to do with science. If it will happen, it will be a publicity stunt. And something similar has happened before: when “Deep Blue” has won against Kasparov. Did IBM made all source code open…? No, they have “retired” the computer. There was nothing to be gained by a rematch. And the computer had special hardware, thus “Some of the machines will be put on the internet” wouldn’t have worked that well. What makes you think it is going to be different with Turing test?

Also, “Religions which don’t believe God would let a machine think will buy some of the machines and test them for themselves.” is completely false. For example, if I think that Turing test is just something good for “public relations”, why would I want to repeat that test myself…?
I don’t understand why you imagine Turing’s paper must be legalistically followed to the letter as if it is a magic spell, or why you think anyone would be convinced by one private run of the test.
OK, what exactly is unclear here…?
I couldn’t understand any of it. 😊
I did. Here you are replying to that explanation… Sorry, but that is starting to look silly…
And if you do not like “100% proof”, can you offer a “90% proof”…? Or “10% proof”…? Any certainty at all…? Any reason to think that, let’s say, Turing test is not “malfunctioning” with the machines…?
I couldn’t understand any of that either, not even enough to ask a question. It’s like you’re speaking Klingon or something. 😃
*And here it starts to look even more silly. You started with a “challenge” for me to come up with something (anything!) that would persuade me (just me) that God has given a machine an ability to think. I have given you one possibility and now, instead of acknowledging that the challenge has been met, you act as if I was supposed to give you something completely different!
Also, why does it matter if someone else accepts anything? Turing’s paper’s first paragraph explicitly ridicules similar approaches with the joke about “Gallup poll”.*
He is ridiculing the kind of thing you came up with, the use of subjective criteria.
*Ah there…? Well, on that planet there are no computers that have passed any non-trivial Turing test anyway. Thus this whole discussion is pointless. Right…? 😃
Now seriously: could you, please, try to argue without such “statements”…? They do not seem to add much to the discussion.*
:confused:

Sorry, I just can’t make out anything to reply to. I don’t know if you’re just arguing for the sake of it but we seem to be going around in circles here. I’ll meet you on another thread. Have a good Christmas.
 
It is much more feasible to make a machine to turn out ten million widgets than to make them one by one by hand. It is much more feasible to program a machine to paint the Mandelbrot Set than to try to paint it by hand. It is much more feasible to program a machine to evolve its own intelligence than to try to program it all by hand.

Why do you think that’s a admission? Why do you think there are two positions there? What is unclear?
I’m not sure what feasibility has to do with anything.

You claimed that we could not program intelligence because it “would take too long and have too many bugs,” but then you claim we could program a machine that “learns and evolves capacities,” which entails that such a machine would simply BECOME intelligent on its own, so there would, apparently, be no need to program intelligence because it would “evolve” electronically.

You are simply offloading - as a circumventing maneuver - the need for humans to program intelligence (because that method would be too time consuming and buggy) onto the machines themselves who could “get there” without the need for human intervention.

This seems a pipe dream of sorts - admitting humans cannot do by programming what the machine will eventually accomplish of its own accord. You simply deny the need for humans to “do the work” that machines, like churning out widgets, will eventually do easily.

You see no problem with that sequence of thought?

You can’t seriously think you have provided a sufficiently complete answer to the problem by merely deferring to a futuristic fairy tale, have you?
We don’t know enough about intelligence to program it. In any case it would take too long and have too many bugs.

But we can write programs to allow a machine to learn and evolve capabilities. The technology is now cheap enough for anyone to play, and there are basic research programs along with the military and commercial applications, so this field is developing.
I know, you will find some other quip, largely irrelevant to anything above, as your “answer.”

Wait for it…
 
I’m not sure what feasibility has to do with anything.

You claimed that we could not program intelligence because it “would take too long and have too many bugs,” but then you claim we could program a machine that “learns and evolves capacities,” which entails that such a machine would simply BECOME intelligent on its own, so there would, apparently, be no need to program intelligence because it would “evolve” electronically.

You are simply offloading - as a circumventing maneuver - the need for humans to program intelligence (because that method would be too time consuming and buggy) onto the machines themselves who could “get there” without the need for human intervention.

This seems a pipe dream of sorts - admitting humans cannot do by programming what the machine will eventually accomplish of its own accord. You simply deny the need for humans to “do the work” that machines, like churning out widgets, will eventually do easily.

You see no problem with that sequence of thought?

You can’t seriously think you have provided a sufficiently complete answer to the problem by merely deferring to a futuristic fairy tale, have you?
Sounds like this is all new to you, but these lines of research and application are well known, students all around the world play with these ideas every day. I linked a couple of videos, there are many more, have a look around, do some reading.

The basic reason why this field developed is that since evolution produced intelligence in us, if it worked once it will work again. You might think otherwise, but I wouldn’t be happy discussing that given the ban.
*I know, you will find some other quip, largely irrelevant to anything above, as your “answer.”
Wait for it…*
That’s uncalled for. Why do you keep making these deceitful lies? :confused:
 
I don’t understand why you imagine Turing’s paper must be legalistically followed to the letter as if it is a magic spell, or why you think anyone would be convinced by one private run of the test.
Turing test is described in Turing’s paper. If we discuss the Turing test, it seems reasonable to look at the procedures outlined in that paper as opposed to procedures outlined somewhere else.

As for “why you think anyone would be convinced by one private run of the test” - I am not sure not think that anyone would be persuaded even by a thousand “public” tests.

Anyway, if you want to discuss a “Turing-inocente test” (a version of the test that you would consider persuasive), could you, please, describe it a bit more formally? For example, what information would be available to interrogator (or would it be multiple interrogators?) on later tests? Would they know what questions were asked in previous tests?
I couldn’t understand any of it. 😊
I couldn’t understand any of that either, not even enough to ask a question. It’s like you’re speaking Klingon or something. 😃
:confused:

Sorry, I just can’t make out anything to reply to. I don’t know if you’re just arguing for the sake of it but we seem to be going around in circles here. I’ll meet you on another thread.
Um, you couldn’t understand anything? Anything at all? You mean that you couldn’t understand a single phrase? A single word? Couldn’t even recognise a single letter? And couldn’t even form a question like “How is ‘10% proof’ different from ‘100% proof’?”? Something tells me you might be overstating your inability to understand… 🙂
He is ridiculing the kind of thing you came up with, the use of subjective criteria.
That’s the kind of criteria that “everyone” has. If you want to persuade “everyone”, you will need to pass all of those criteria.
Have a good Christmas.
Have a good Christmas as well.
 
I can’t see the supposed problem about meaning. There is a wide gulf between a computer and something with intelligence. I don’t see how anything with intelligence could only see the world as sets of symbols.
That’s the main issue… humans are intelligent and do see the world as more than a set of symbol. Computers only manipulate symbols which have meaning attributed to them by humans. Otherwise their operations are meaningless. What is not clear is why adding complexity (how much?) suddently overcomes this fact about computing, or why computers begin to do more than just manipulate symbols once they can complete the Turing test.
Turing is interested in able to decide whether a machine can think. But he wants to avoid discussion of what is a machine, since some would say that a human is a biological machine, and the discussion will disappear into metaphysical clouds and never return. He wants to avoid trying to define what is meant by thinking for the same reason. He is aware that our concepts of machine, human, thinking, intelligence are squidgy. So in the absence of universally agreed hard definitions, what will convince most people that something made by engineers can think (and perhaps can suffer)?
I understand all of that. What I’m saying is that it is philosophically meaningless. If a computer passes the Turing test, we still have to decide what that means, if it means anything. That is impossible without drawing some conclusion about what relevance there is to a computer behaving like a human in conversation, in which case one has to have at least implicit definitions of machine, human, thinking, and intelligence.

Described this way, his test looks like little more than a obscurantist, rhetorical sleight of hand.

I find the bolded portions to equivocate to some degree. The questions of whether a machine can think and what will convince most people are not the same. As I’ve said, if I’m fooled by the Turing test into thinking that a machine is human, then I’d be fooled into thinking that it thinks. But that’s about it, because humanlike behavior is just a defeasible indicator of intelligence (insofar that it is generally performed by humans, which we know to be intelligent).
I asked “So what is your alternative to Turing’s game, what would make you accept that God is omnipotent and can let a machine think?”

So OK, remove the bit about Turing, what would make you accept that God is omnipotent and can let a machine think?"
I already accept that God is omnipotent.

I would qualify what it would mean for God to let a machine think substantially (since a “machine” is by definition a man-made artifact), but for the purposes of this discussion, let’s just say that I accept that God could create a thinking machine.

My question for you, then, is: what of it? The point is a red herring. Whether God can create a thinking machine is 100% irrelevant to the Turing test which is meant to determine whether or not man can create a thinking machine and whether passing the Turing test is a sufficient condition for intelligence.
This is just taking us further into the Slough of Definition and the Mire of Meaning. But there’s a job to be done, and it won’t get done if we say everything is subjective and so nothing can be done.
I mentioned that thinking is by any coherent definition fundamentally subjective, but that was not the whole point; the rest of my point, you seem not to have replied to.

My point was that there seems to be no warrant for seeing it as an epistemic truth that there should be a test to discover that something thinks. I didn’t say everything is subjective. I said that thinking is subjective, and I don’t see any coherent way to get out of that. I said that I don’t see why there must be a way to detect it objectively, so it won’t do to just say there’s a job to be done and there must be a way to do it (that would be begging the question). What reason do we have to believe that thinking must be detectable, that there necessarily is a “job to be done”?
So let’s bring in the Marines. Are there are things we can do which mud cannot? “Yes, Sir.” Do these include curiosity, creativity, self awareness, empathy, and so on? “Yes, Sir.” Are these objective qualities, would you know them when you see them in others? “Yes, Sir.” Do you think their absence demonstrates absence of ability to think? “Yes, Sir.”
I don’t know what you’re getting at here. There are things that we can do that mud cannot. To repeat myself, what of it?

How are curiosity, creativity, self awareness, and empathy objective qualities? I might defeasibly judge that others are curious, for example, but that presupposes a judgment that they have a mental life, which presupposes that they are self aware. But self awareness definitely is not objectively observable.

There is further confusion, even. The absence of curiosity, creativity, self awareness, empathy, etc. does not suggest an absence of the ability to think, since a sleeping person has the ability to think but has none of those things.

Furthermore, even if the absence of creativity etc. did suggest the absence of ability to think, it would not follow that the presence of those behaviors does suggest an ability to think. From ~p → ~q we cannot derive p → q; that is just formally invalid (but that would need to hold if your dialogue here had any relevance to the Turing test).
 
As I said, you have no means to keep alive this belief in qualia since you can never make progress when you’ve already decided it’s intractable.
I said, “I think the subjective phenomena are intractable to systems that are defined by the stipulation that subjective phenomena are not empirically observable.” It seems that you read up to the word “intractable” and then stopped reading, since I said that I thought qualia were intractable to systems that are defined by the stipulation that subjective phenomena are not empirically observable. In other words, I believe that qualia are intractable to such systems (ie. modern science). That’s not an issue with modern science; science is quite good at investigating what it is capable of investigating. That doesn’t mean that I regard qualia as globally intractable, since hylemorphism is equipped to address them.

To reiterate (since you’ve made this error before), I am not saying that qualia are utterly intractable. I am saying that if you define your method of inquiry in opposition to subjective properties, then your method of inquiry cannot investigate subjective properties. It would be like accusing someone of deploying a god-of-the-gaps argument when they claim that science can’t fully explain friendship or beauty or faith. That isn’t a weakness of science.
The Wikipedia article on qualia lists examples: a headache, the taste of wine, and the perceived redness of an evening sky. Currently we have no idea whether those three things have anything in common. Some philosophers would like us to believe they do, but they have no reason to bunch them together other than to bunch them together. Oh look, they say, a bunch of disparate subjective feelings we can’t explain, let’s bunch them together.

We can safely ignore those philosophers and their notions of cooties.
This argument baffles me. Referring to headaches, the taste of wine, and the redness of an evening sky collectively as qualia is no more perplexing than the way that biology refers to taste, smell, touch, and equilibrioception as senses. This is a downright fallacious justification for “ignoring” qualia.

(That said, as I said before, without receiving response, the issue of subjective phenomena is problematic for materialism whether you bunch them together or consider just one separately. The redness of the sky causes the same problems; I don’t even need to bunch them together, so the whole point here is nothing but a red herring.)
You were referring to his wife, not to her husband,
I originally referred to both of them. You then linked to Patricia Churchland’s page in response.

In either case, we find similar rejections on her Wikipedia page as well: “She is associated with a school of thought called eliminative materialism, which argues that commonsense, immediately intuitive, or “folk psychological” concepts such as thought, free will, and consciousness will likely need to be revised in a physically reductionistic way as neuroscientists discover more about the nature of brain function.” Note that here “thought” is listed as well.
and you said they “reject thoughts because they are apparently unverifiable”. The article you quote doesn’t back you up - it says they believe there may be no need for concepts like “beliefs” or “feelings” as they don’t correspond to “objective phenomena, such as activation patterns across neural networks”, whereas of course thinking does correspond to activation patterns.
As is seen above, Patricia Churchland actually does believe that the concept of “thought” is flawed. Furthermore, the rejection of belief seems to be tantamount to the rejection of thought anyway, since knowledge is usually considered as some species of belief. (All of these mental terms are intimately associated.) That said, it should be noted that “activation patterns across neural networks” does not seem quite sufficient for thought. If you regard that as thought, then the Turing test is irrelevant, since you just need to define “neural networks” broadly enough to include computer processors.
In both cases they are saying science must change to accommodate their beliefs irrespective of evidence, which would destroy the entire foundation of science.
I probably should not have said anything about their desire to change neuroscientific practice. None of them have particular issue with deploying neuroscience for practical purposes (Tallis, for instance, actively publishes in medical journals). Their main criticism is that neuroscience has self-imposed limitations when it comes to investigating the mind.
This still seems to be a prime candidate for Circular Reasoning Of The Year Award 2013. P-zombies usually come up in attempts to disprove physical theories of mind. In reality we internally experience things which may or may not having anything in common which we vaguely call feelings.
I can’t tell what connection the first sentence has to the latter point. Regarding circular reasoning, I’m not sure why it matters. I wasn’t making a syllogistic argument; I was reiterating a definition. If I repeat the same definition twice then what I say should be circular; that just means what I’m saying is consistent.

Regarding the second bolded point, I can’t quite tell what you’re saying. Are you saying that we experience things unconsciously which are not qualia? Or are you saying that are subjective experiences do not necessarily have anything in common with each other? Either way seems like a red herring, but let me know what you were trying to say.
 
Affirming the consequent is a formal fallacy of making an argument of the form:
(P1) If P, then Q.
(P2) Q.
(C) P.

On the Turing test, Wikipedia says:

In other terms, thinking is a subjective process that cannot be observed. The Turing test aims to avoid this difficulty by determining not whether machines do think (for that cannot be observed directly) but rather whether machines can act as though they think.

I allow that the Turing test seems useful to define or determine a criteria for what it would mean for a machine to “think.” If a machine passes the Turing test, then we can call it “artificially intelligent.”

The fallacy crops up when one tries to use the Turing test to determine that machine’s behaving like us implies that the machine thinks like us. We have an argument of the form:

(P1) If X thinks, then X can behave as though it thinks.
(P2) X behaves as though it thinks.
(C) X thinks.

(P1) seems reasonable given our experience. We think, and our behavior determines what it would mean for something to behave as though it thinks. Likewise, we can grant (P2), that a machine capable of behaving as though it thinks is conceivable. But the issue is that this line of reasoning is the straightforward fallacy of affirming the consequent.

Notice that this is a fallacy regardless of the definition of thinking - so we need not be hung up by the definition. If we define thinking in terms of function and behavior, then we trivially get:

(P1’) If X behaves as though it thinks, then X can behave as though it thinks.
(P2) X behaves as though it thinks.
(C’) X behaves as though it thinks.

(P1’) has been transformed into a tautology by this move, and (C’) is now trivial.
Edward Feser analyzes the Turning Test on his latest blog. edwardfeser.blogspot.com/

Linus2nd
 
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