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Sonoran_Son
Guest
If this is the case, how can we say we have freewill instead of an illusion of freewill. If freewill is defined as having the ability to choose between a set of possible choices, and God knows of which choice we will make before we make it, how can the two be reconciled? Say God knows we will choose A over B, it is therefore impossible for us to choose B as that would violate God’s omniscience. While we know of the option to choose B, we can only choose A as choosing B would be violating God’s omniscience. In this effect we do not have a choice, only what I could call the illusion of having a choice. Please let me know if I am misunderstanding anything.I don’t think so. I put down two types of food for the dog. I know which food he will eat. I didn’t force him to choose that menu item: he chose it freely. That’s a very simplistic way of looking at it. But, when we look at the moon with our naked eye, we see a flat surface. On the moon, the landscape is totally different: it consists of hills and valleys, ravines, plains, and craters. That’s how God looks down at us, analogically, as if looking at a flat surface. He is not determining what we choose (except that he does have everything to do with what paths are available, and, thus, they are limited). But, free will is defined as choosing between two or more possible choices. We can choose either “A” or “B,” but God does not send us to “A” rather than “B” - even though he knows.