C
Contrabass101
Guest
I have been reading a bit of St. Athanasius, on the issue of whether there are things that Jesus only knew in his Divine nature, and not in his human nature. I did that because of a discussion with a friend, about whether Jesus knew the “day and hour”. My friend argued, that Jesus as a person didn’t know it when he was here at earth, not even in his Divine nature, whereas I argued, that Jesus in his Divine nature could not be ignorant of anything. Then I was asked, whether this is not a contradiction; that Jesus should be both limited and omniscient at once? So I decided to consult Athanasius. Unfortunately, he is dead, so I can’t ask him questions (well, I can’t expect him to answer me in any hearable way, anyway)
I am not sure, that I follow the argument of Athanasius, so I hope someone here may be able to help me out in clarifying these things.
Is knowing in the Divine nature just a totally different mode of knowing than knowing in the human nature? If so, can perfect knowledge co-exist with partial knowledge?
Is it the “nature” that knows something, or is it the person?
Or does a sentence like “the Son doesn’t know the day and hour, but only the Father” simply mean, that it is not part of the knowledge, that the Son of Man (as a ministerial title) is supposed to reveal? That Jesus for some reason (hyperbolic?) describes that, which does not belong to the ministry of the Son of Man as “something the Son of Man doesn’t know”?
Does “know” = “is supposed to reveal” here?
It seems a little clumsy, is there a better way to express it?
I am not sure, that I follow the argument of Athanasius, so I hope someone here may be able to help me out in clarifying these things.
Is knowing in the Divine nature just a totally different mode of knowing than knowing in the human nature? If so, can perfect knowledge co-exist with partial knowledge?
Is it the “nature” that knows something, or is it the person?
Or does a sentence like “the Son doesn’t know the day and hour, but only the Father” simply mean, that it is not part of the knowledge, that the Son of Man (as a ministerial title) is supposed to reveal? That Jesus for some reason (hyperbolic?) describes that, which does not belong to the ministry of the Son of Man as “something the Son of Man doesn’t know”?
Does “know” = “is supposed to reveal” here?
It seems a little clumsy, is there a better way to express it?
- CB