The Use of "Novus Ordo"

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I was baptized and confirmed at a Novus Ordo parish. The priest there refers to the Ordinary Form as the “Novus Ordo” regularly. And he doesn’t see it as derogatory at all.

“Novus Ordo Missae”, that in Latin is what it’s called. Which is translated as “New Order of Mass”. That is what Pope St. Paul VI introduced in 1970.
 
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The problem with the OF is how its rubrics are too vague, making them vulnerable to innovation and abuse. I never hear about deviations from the Order in the EF. But I believe we’ve gone off topic here. We’re just here to talk about the use of the term ‘Novus Ordo’ when referring to the OF. Let’s save this discussion for another thread.
 
You’re lucky then. And yeah, alteration is a more appropriate term.
 
I will say that I once attended an OF parish that probably celebrated the NO more reverently than any parish I’d been to before. But even they occasionally had problems such as interrupting for announcements, or holding hands during the Our Father; but that’s really the fault of the laity, not the clergy. Our Lady of the Angels on EWTN is the only NO Mass I’ve seen celebrated both reverently, and correctly. If every parish followed their protocol, I’d probably still be attending the OF.
 
Scott84 said:
I love how triggered and offended people can get just by using certain language.
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Well, you should probably show a little more charity than that. But it does go to show that language and what we call things does matter. Technically it’s incorrect to refer to the Mass in the terms THE Ordinary and Extraordinary Form. Technically it’s also incorrect to refer to the forms as different Rites according to Pope Benedict XVI. Technically it’s apparently also incorrect to refer to the current missal as Novus Ordo Missæ. Is it simply called Ordo now? Is there even a both technically AND politically correct way of distinguishing the two forms of the Mass? I’m beginning to think not.
 
The priest at the OF parish I was baptized at regularly calls it the “Novus Ordo”, and he doesn’t see it or use it in a derogatory sense, and neither do I. It just baffles me how so many think the use of this term is considered a four letter word. I never saw its use as derogatory either.

For the record I am not a politically correct man. I just tell it as it is. When Our Lord preached, he preached the truth and did not use PC language either, because people needed to hear the truth.
 
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Yet by divine providence, the New Testament was written in Greek. Greek, not Latin, remained the language of the Eastern Church.
 
dochawk said:
That’s not “technical” but *substantive" . . .
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Yes, my reasoning behind using “technically”, rather than some other word was that people still use either of the terms in my post, mostly without prejudice, and each of the terms have colloquially become proper nouns for what they describe, even though they technically aren’t.
 
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