C
Cranch
Guest
This question was inspired by something the Baptist preacher pointed out in the Karl Keating YouTube debate posted elsewhere. He seems to think Catholics altered the position of a comma in Hebrews 10:12 to avoid a scriptural refutation of the sacrifice of the mass or a proof of OSAS or something
. It’s true the comma moves position depending on (apparently) if the translation is Catholic or protestant. Personally, although it alters the object of “for ever” in the verse, I don’t believe the position of the comma affects any fundamental truth for a Catholic.
I am interested, however, in which rendering is more accurate. Does anyone know? Does the Greek have punctuation and does one or the other comma placement correspond to it? Thanks for any help. Here’s what I’m referring to (comma shown in red):
I am interested, however, in which rendering is more accurate. Does anyone know? Does the Greek have punctuation and does one or the other comma placement correspond to it? Thanks for any help. Here’s what I’m referring to (comma shown in red):
Hebrews 10:12-13
Catholic:NAB:
12 But this one offered one sacrifice for sins, and took his seat forever at the right hand of God; 13 now he waits until his enemies are made his footstool.
Challoner Douay-Rheims:
12 But this man offering one sacrifice for sins**,** for ever sitteth on the right hand of God, 13 From henceforth expecting, until his enemies be made his footstool.
**
Protestant:
KJV:
12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever,** sat down on the right hand of God; 13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
NASB:
12 but He, having offered one sacrifice for sins for all time**,** sat down at the right hand of God, 13 waiting from that time onward until his enemies be made a footstool for his feet.