E
ezeekl
Guest
Quote:
Originally Posted by Linda Marie
Mary was saved by Christ from sin from the moment of her conception.
" And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women." Luke 1:28 DR]
So et me turn the question back on you. How could Mary be full of grace BEFORE God’s grace was available to mankind? The age of grace was still about 34 years into the future. Now the Greek word that Jerome translated as ‘gratia plena’ in Latin or ‘full of grace’ in English is the Greek word κεχαριτωμένη kecharitomene]. It is the past pluperfect tense of the Greek word charitoo which is translated as ‘grace’ in other parts of the NT. Current protestant versions of the Bible usually translate this as “highly favored”. Which is not incorrect but is also less than completely accurate. To be full of grace before Christ’s death and resurrection, which made grace available to mankind, is indeed to be highly favored. Notice also that the angel does not address Mary by name but rather by a characteristic quality of Mary.
This is a prime example of how protestants have attempted to de-catholictize the scriptures. This is much like Luther adding the word alone to scripture to come up with “faith alone”. indeed please note the following from Hastings Dictionary of the New Testament:
"The much discussed κεχαριτωμένη must mean ‘endued with grace’ ( Sirach 18:17 ): πίστιν καὶ χάριν λαβοῦσα Μαρία (Justin Martyr, Try. 100); and both here and in Luke 1:30 the usual translation ‘grace’ should be retained for χάρις .
Originally Posted by Linda Marie
Mary was saved by Christ from sin from the moment of her conception.
In Luke 1:28 we read:
" And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women." Luke 1:28 DR]
So et me turn the question back on you. How could Mary be full of grace BEFORE God’s grace was available to mankind? The age of grace was still about 34 years into the future. Now the Greek word that Jerome translated as ‘gratia plena’ in Latin or ‘full of grace’ in English is the Greek word κεχαριτωμένη kecharitomene]. It is the past pluperfect tense of the Greek word charitoo which is translated as ‘grace’ in other parts of the NT. Current protestant versions of the Bible usually translate this as “highly favored”. Which is not incorrect but is also less than completely accurate. To be full of grace before Christ’s death and resurrection, which made grace available to mankind, is indeed to be highly favored. Notice also that the angel does not address Mary by name but rather by a characteristic quality of Mary.
This is a prime example of how protestants have attempted to de-catholictize the scriptures. This is much like Luther adding the word alone to scripture to come up with “faith alone”. indeed please note the following from Hastings Dictionary of the New Testament:
"The much discussed κεχαριτωμένη must mean ‘endued with grace’ ( Sirach 18:17 ): πίστιν καὶ χάριν λαβοῦσα Μαρία (Justin Martyr, Try. 100); and both here and in Luke 1:30 the usual translation ‘grace’ should be retained for χάρις .
} However, that does not make it the sole authority. The argument, “Where is that in the Bible?” doesn’t work because there is no biblical basis for sola scriptura.
}
…
… too bad your scholarly acumen fails to measure up
This doesn’t take away from our adoration of Mary. She is a saint, yet the “sinless life” supposes a God-like quality and separate path to achieve heaven apart from Christ. Please elaborate and elucidate this foundational basis.