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viktor_aleksndr
Guest
while i am thinking of what others are saying that the whore of babylon is in Rome a thought just pops out of my mind.
Could it be that John describes the Whore of babylon as the anti christ (which is of course the paganism in rome) but it is not really in Rome? Could it be possible that John use the word Babylon (Rome) for all the Jews and gentiles can relate to what he is talking about. Why?
But of course we know that the catholic church have interpreted or identified some of the people stated in the revelation such as the emperors and kings.
Could it be that John describes the Whore of babylon as the anti christ (which is of course the paganism in rome) but it is not really in Rome? Could it be possible that John use the word Babylon (Rome) for all the Jews and gentiles can relate to what he is talking about. Why?
- Is Hinduism or Buddhism or other sect that is worshipping idols familiar to the people at that time?
- If John states that pagans of India or China, would you think this will be an interest to the people at that time? I think the gentiles will say “where the heck is india or china?”
- Could it be that the place will just be symbolic? Like seven hills etc.
But of course we know that the catholic church have interpreted or identified some of the people stated in the revelation such as the emperors and kings.