The Word was WITH Whom? (John 1:1)

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He doesn’t want to have a serious conversation, otherwise he wouldn’t be only repeating himself
 
Why ask that; the fixation always HAS been on “was” , not WITH.
Was One God with ANOTHER God?
The context should NEVER be ignored.
 
Their translation conveniently places an “a” that doesn’t exist in the msnuscripts between “was” and “God”, too, if I remember correctly.
 
theMadJW said:
Are scriptures that unimportant to you?
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“In no other way have heresies arisen, and perverse doctrines that ensnare souls and cast them into the abyss, than because the Scriptures, which are good in themselves, are ill understood, and what is thus ill understood is rashly and boldly asserted.” - Saint Augustine
 
“Was One God with ANOTHER God?”

No… do you think we agree with this statement?
What do you think Trinitarians believe?

THAT is why I ASK!

Whom was the Word WITH?
If the Word was LITERALLY God, and he was WITH another God- you can connect the dots!
 
“Conveniently”?
Look up the Greek.
It is EASY to see the contrast it shows.
 
Yes, conveniently. Show me how you get “a god” instead of simply “God”.
 
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There are no upper or lower case distinctions in the biblical languages.
That came MUCH later.
Notice the contrast between “god” and " THE god"?
 
Sorry, Brittany- ever since I questioned that, comparing it with the Bible, it has NEVER made sense.
Jesus serves God. Not Two, not Himself.
 
Your entire argument rests on, “They had no concept of the upper and lower case”?
 
You mean that should be IGNORED, and add what we wish?

THE God contrasted with God.

Feel better?
 
“God-man” and “Hypostatic Union”- NOWHERE in the Bible, nor implied in it.
 
The context of the chapter, the entire book- AND the entire Bible makes it clear.
God SENDS someone, not coming Himself/Themselves.
He TEACHES him what to say and do.
He resurrects him and GIVES (not returning) ALL power and authority.
And, even so, Jesus SUBJECTS himself to God- not Two Others.
 
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