C
catholic1seeks
Guest
**I understand the theology around the male-only priesthood as it is presented now. **Even if I have difficulty understanding the ontological basis that presents this idea of an inherent “maleness” in men and an inherent “femaleness” in women, I get the basic understanding that yes, because priests represent Christ at the mass, and he was a man, it is fitting that men should be priests.
I do not really understand why it is necessary to explain it this way, though. For Christ was also fully God, yet obviously a mere mortal man can represent him. Why is the sex of Christ essential to representing him? Why not other factors, like age, or ethnicity?
My concern is the history of this theology. This modern theological justification for a male-only priesthood is much friendlier than saying, like Paul did, that women should be subordinate.
The concern is that the early church may have started out with a male-only priesthood with one justification, then the later church kept the tradition of male-only priesthood, but has a **different justification **for it. So ultimately, it is possible that the reasoning no longer applies - and surely the reasoning matters.
As an aside, I think this general concern applies to any doctrine or practice in the church. For example, is the reason we oppose contraception today the same reason that the Old Testament did, or the same reason that early church fathers did, etc? We as Catholics pride ourselves on doctrinal consistency, but surely the “WHY” we believe (the justifications for it) are essential to having a correct evaluation of the teaching.
I do not really understand why it is necessary to explain it this way, though. For Christ was also fully God, yet obviously a mere mortal man can represent him. Why is the sex of Christ essential to representing him? Why not other factors, like age, or ethnicity?
My concern is the history of this theology. This modern theological justification for a male-only priesthood is much friendlier than saying, like Paul did, that women should be subordinate.
The concern is that the early church may have started out with a male-only priesthood with one justification, then the later church kept the tradition of male-only priesthood, but has a **different justification **for it. So ultimately, it is possible that the reasoning no longer applies - and surely the reasoning matters.
As an aside, I think this general concern applies to any doctrine or practice in the church. For example, is the reason we oppose contraception today the same reason that the Old Testament did, or the same reason that early church fathers did, etc? We as Catholics pride ourselves on doctrinal consistency, but surely the “WHY” we believe (the justifications for it) are essential to having a correct evaluation of the teaching.