I already did. It does not have to be “spelled out”. It is obviously implied.
So what? There is a disagreement, and I say that the ones who distinguish between a “freedom of will” and the “freedom to act it out” are wrong.
LOL! OK – so on one hand, they’re trying to imply that free will is about free action; on the other, they’re saying that there’s a difference between ‘free will’ and ‘free action’. “Obviously implied”? More like “obviously in denial!”

Oh – and to say that “philosophers disagree” is more a tautology than a proof of your assertion!
Well, to say that “there are always external constraints on the range of options we can meaningfully try to undertake” is clearly nonsense. Always??? Sheer idiocy.
Really? OK – I’ve asserted to you that a valid counter-example is sufficient to rebut an assertion. Please provide a counter-example – even one will demonstrate that the claim is wrong. (Remember, though: I get to counter your counter-example – and I’m certain that I can provide an example of an option that is constrained, in any example of a range of options without constraint that you attempt to construct. Try me.

)
What the heck does it mean to “meaningfully try to undertake an option” if the option is impossible to carry out? The word “meaningfully” again implies (actually spells out) that the “options” which cannot be carried out are not “options”. That particular sentence is as meaningless as it comes.
And yet, it is the proof text you submitted to demonstrate that your assertion about the nature of free will. Hmm… can I conclude that your assertion is likewise ‘meaningless’?
Gorgias said:
You seem to be oblivious to what I’ve been saying, to the extent that when you point to an article that makes my point, you think it’s trying to demonstrate your point…!
And it did demonstrate my point.
Q.E.D. … :sad_yes:
Think about it. If one accepts that the “freedom of will” simply means that we can “choose” among possible and impossible “options”
No. Let’s try again. Free will addresses pre-determination, not attainability of actions.
, then - by definition - our freedom is never really limited, it is only limited by our imagination.
…unless it’s limited by a being who pre-determines our choices! Yes – you’ve got it!
And it cannot be curtailed except by smashing the person’s skull of erasing his whole brain. Nonsensical definition.
sigh. No, you don’t…
It can be curtailed by a closed system in which cause follows effect deterministically, without the rationally-conditioned choices of the agents within the system. No nonsense. No skull-bashing. No ambiguity.
By the same token, from your definition it follows that the “free will of the person being raped is never curtailed”, merely her freedom to “carry out her will is curtailed”.
Right! The victimization is a victimization of action, not a victimization of the person in the right to the integrity of their own mind! (It is nonetheless heinous, but you’ve accurately honed in on the injustice of rape!)
Also follows the “free will of the blackmailed person is intact”, he is not even physically prevented from from acting out his desire (like the person who is being raped), he is “free” not to succumb to the threats against his family…
Correct. However, by using his rationality and his free will, he may very well decide that his best course of action is to succumb to the demands of the blackmailers. On the other hand, he may decide that the best course of action is to call the authorities, and involve them in the capture of the blackmailers. Or, he may decide to just ignore the situation alltogether and hope for the best. ‘Free will’ speaks to the ability to make a decision; it doesn’t speak to the validity or attainability of the choice made.
You know my friend, with all due respect your definition is insane. No sane person would agree that the blackmailed person’s free will is intact
How odd. I’ve just provided you with three alternatives; each are choices that may be made in that situation, and clearly, each are alternatives that real people have made in exactly this real situation. Yet, you claim that there’s no evidence of free will here. You’re in the minority, my friend. At some point, you’re going to have to ask yourself, “why is all the traffic in my lane going the wrong way” and instead entertain the question, “am
I going the wrong way in this lane?!?!?”
And to show what nonsense you are advocating I simply can point out (again) that according to your definition God can prevent the rapist’s ability to carry out his threats without “touching” his free will. And thus the so called “free will defense” fails.
Sigh. Ok, let’s try
this one again.
Look – I’m not claiming that when God allows a person to actualize the activity of rape, that this is an example of God allowing free will. Rather, when God allows the person to
make the decision to rape, that’s the salient moment for the discussion of free will. (From a Christian perspective, you might recognize this from Jesus’ words in the Gospels: when a person decides to commit adultery in his mind, he has already committed the sin.)
However, you raise a
different issue: given that God allows all to have free will, and God knows all that people choose to do, why is it that God allows them to
actualize their immoral decisions? That is a completely different question! It addresses the question of Divine Justice, not the notion of Free Will.
Hey – if you want to talk Divine Justice, I’m good to go! Just stop conflating the two, please, so that we can have a productive discussion.