Your last point is interesting, Delson, and I’ll look into that. I read an article about Archbishop Justin Welby, the fairly new head of the Anglican Church in the UK, who learned a couple of years ago that his father was Jewish. The article was in The Times of Israel, which is edited by a former editor of The Jerusalem Post. The Jewish writer ended the article by saying that Archbishop Welby, as an Anglican, would be able to live in Israel under the Law of Return if he ever chose to do so. That puzzled me. Possibly the change in the Law you’re speaking of has something to do with it, if the writer was correct. Welby, though, is of Ashkenazi descent, I think, since his family’s name was originally Weiler. At any rate, he’s definitely a first generation convert to Christianity, so

.
As for the rest of your post, Delson, Delson, where’s the emoticon for when I don’t want to bang my head against a wall but I do want to hit my forehead with my palm…you completely misunderstood what I said all through your two middle paragraphs. I wrote briefly before that until fairly recently the CC did indeed require Jewish converts to give up all and any Jewish practice. If it appalls you now as a Catholic, how was this okay for most of Catholic history? I don’t mean to be difficult, but I don’t understand how you can be okay with Aquinas, the Twelfth Ecumenical Council, and the Council of Florence all requiring all cessation of Jewish practice by converts. Aquinas in particular gives theological seasons for the requirement, so it can’t be seen as merely a discipline for political reasons.
In between hitting myself, let me thank you for noting that in Acts 21 the the Apostles in Jerusalem said there “was no truth in the rumors” that Paul was teaching Jews to cease observing the Law. I asked about this several years ago on CAF, and just got the sound of crickets.
I’ll try to sort out the rest of our misunderstanding later.