B
Blue_Horizon
Guest
OK there is no doubt a very long history to this topic, especially Post Enlightenment.
If we limit the topic to Aquinas (or at least Thomism)…
(a) Is the truth of these mono-relative (as opposed to correlative) principles considered self-evident and hence assumed without debate?
(b) Or is it considered demonstrable (either apriori or aposteriori)?
My main observations are:
If we limit the topic to Aquinas (or at least Thomism)…
(a) Is the truth of these mono-relative (as opposed to correlative) principles considered self-evident and hence assumed without debate?
(b) Or is it considered demonstrable (either apriori or aposteriori)?
My main observations are:
- its analytic (like “father and son”) not synthetic.
- just because “before this” is true does that mean “therefore on account of this” is also true? Not always it seems.