Thoughts on 1 Tim 3:15

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garysibio

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Although most of the Bible translations I checked, including all Catholic translations, use the definite article (“the pillar …”) in this passage, the Greek text does not include it. The ESV, and a few other translations, use the indefinite article (“a pillar …”) here. (Greek has no indefinite article. Although I am no expert on Greek and can only go with what I have read from those who are, I believe this means it is implied.)

In light of it’s absence in the Greek, isn’t it more honest to use the indefinite article in English translations? With the popularity of the ESV in Evangelical circles, we are going to have this pointed out to us by those who would challenge our ecclesiology. I was thinking it over and the indefinite article would, in my opinion, more closely comply with Catholic teaching anyway.

The Catholic Church teaches that the Bible is inspired by the Holy Spirit and inerrant. If you say ‘the Church is the pillar’ it can be taken to imply that we don’t need the Bible. After all, we have the Church, the pillar. What need do we have for anything else? Yet God did give us an inerrant Bible and I don’t think He did it because He had some time to kill one day. As Catholics we do not deny the importance of the Bible; we just know its proper place. The use of the definite article seems to me to deny its importance, to make the Bible irrelevant.

On the other hand, if you use the indefinite article, then both are important. Some might argue that it makes Church and Bible equally important as pillars of the truth, but I’m not certain that that would be the case. The fact that the Church is a pillar gives it more significance than most Evangelicals, at least the ones I’ve run into, would be willing to give it.

I was wondering if anyone had any (name removed by moderator)ut on this idea, especially if they know anything about Koine Greek.

Gary
 
Hi Gary,

Indeed there is no article in the Greek. The French Bible de Jérusalem say, “L’Église du Dieu vivant – colonne et support de la vérité”. In English this means “The Church of the Living God – column and support of truth”. Now French, like English, has both definite and indefinite articles. But they chose here, not to use any article, like the Greek. In the three languages, this reading abstracts from whether the Church is “the” or “a” pillar of truth, to emphasize the Church’s magisterium as garanteeing the truth. In other words the emphasis is on the truth that you are guaranteed by being part of the Church of God. This does not exclude scripture as being a source of truth but it does underline the Church’s role as the gardian and interpreter of Scripture.

What do you think?

Verbum
 
Unless I’m misunderstanding you, it almost seems as if the lack of either article in the French translation is pretty much the same as if they had used the indefinite article. It allows for both Church and Scripture to be pillars yet still maintain the primacy of the Church as interpreter of Scripture.

Am I understanding you correctly?

Gary
 
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