Then I don’t understand you.
Hmm. That’s a pretty standard definition of time, according to Aristotelian philosophical thought. What is it about the definition that you’re having problems with?
You cannot find perfect static. There is quantum fluctuation even at zero degree Kelvin.
OK; great. That helps a lot!
In other words, there is no such thing as a static universe. Perfect! We can dispose of your objections, then – the universe is dynamic, experiencing change and motion.
We define static locally in time.
Unfortunately, if you have anything more than a single instant, you have change. Therefore, there is no such thing as ‘static’ in terms of physical entities. At best, you might claim the
appearance of a static system, but that’s only another way of saying that, if you ignore certain realities, you can pretend it’s static.
Yes, that I understand. What I am claiming is that God cannot sustain time because now is in constant change.
You’re going to have to define things more thoroughly; I suspect that it’s the hand-waving you’re doing that is confusing you. “Now” is not in change, per se – it’s a moment in time. The definition of which moment in time is “now” changes from moment to moment. However, the moments exist (to God’s view) eternally.
It does. Cause, the act of sustaining, and effect, the existence of sustentation, cannot lie at a timeless point. The act of sustaining is dynamic since time changes.
It really doesn’t. Neither ‘cause’ nor ‘effect’ are “timeless”, as you claim. Or, is your problem that “cause” and “effect” can both be localized to a particular set of instants? Like I said earlier: you might want to read up on Aristotle’s Physics – he deals with these problems.
The act of sustaining happens outside of time. Therefore, any ‘change’ in the physical universe does not affect God or His ability to sustain creation.
Yes, preced, that the problem.
Are you claiming that, within the context of the temporal framework, effects precede their causes? If so, you’re going to need to substantiate that claim.
Or, are you still hung up on God’s ability to see both causes and effects simultaneously? If so, that’s not a problem either. In this context, it’s not that He sees an effect ‘before’ its cause: it’s that He sees both
from outside the context of the temporal framework. That does not create paradox or any kind of problem.
I used the dictionary to define change.
Using common dictionary definitions in the context of philosophical discussions is not a good approach.
Lets, use your vocabulary. Does speed ontologically exist?
Speed, as in ds/dt? Things that move exist. Time exists. A measure of things that exist, itself exists (i.e., the notion of “25 MPH” exists as a notion). Are you asking whether ‘speed’ has being?
‘Speed’ is a measure of change of distance over an amount of time. Our brain doesn’t create it.
That is matter which creates conscious state (experiencing speed) or is in conscious state. Which one do you pick?
The ‘experience of speed’ is different from ‘speed’. Neither of these, per se, is ‘matter’. Nor is speed ‘conscious’. Is this what you’re asking?
Where is your example of experiencing the time. We just experience stuff we perceive. We cannot perceive time.
Two posts before, if memory serves. It was the one in which I demonstrated that our senses perceive change.
STT:
Gorgias:
Nope. That doesn’t get you out of the corner you’ve painted yourself into, either. If time is an entity in the physical universe, then it can be sensed… and you’ve already made the claim that we cannot sense it. Sorry… you can’t have it both ways!
That seems the right choice given the definition of entity (using dictionary): a thing with distinct and independent existence.
Does ‘time’ have independent existence, though? It’s a
measure, not a
being.
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