C
CompSciGuy
Guest
I was talking to a friend who grew up in a Muslim school, and he said that in the Muslim school they were taught a lot of stories about the same characters in the Bible as us except that the stories were changed a little here and there to give a different meaning. I don’t know if this is true, but from what I understand, Muslims do believe that the Old and New Testaments have truth to them, but are corrupted, and the Quran is the “uncorrupted” version of the truth. My question is this. Why believe someone who says to the Christians and Jews “you guys have it all wrong, here’s how it really happened” giving a new, “uncorrupted” version of the OT/NT accounts, when there is no evidence of the beliefs being promulgated in this new “uncorrupted” version prior to its writing? It is one thing to reject the writings as untrue, it is another thing to rewrite them. It seems to me that if the NT or OT are corrupted then whatever truth they ever had has been lost and cannot be recovered, and even if it somehow is (in your case, revelations through the prophet Mohammad) then there should be evidence that what he is saying is true, other than his claim to have divine revelation. Think about it. If Jesus were only a prophet and did not claim to be the Son of God, then someone would have written something about it at the time. The only accounts we have are that he claimed to be the Son of God and that he died on the cross and resurrected. If it happened differently, then it would have had to be recorded at the time in order for it to be reliable, not six hundred years in the future.