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badnewsbarrett
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Wahhabism was the key to the rise and overall identity of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, which emerged as not only the birthplace of Islam, but also the philosophical center. It stands out as a super intolerant form of fundamentalist Islam, seeking to purify the religion of Shiites, Sufis, and others who don’t do Islam the right way, with the goal of uniting Islam as much as possible under a common authority and a common creed. (Using the word “creed” rather loosely, although this is an exact phrase that does come up with some frequency and significance in the writings of Wahhabism’s founder, Muhammad Ibn abu Al-Wahhab.
It started out doing exactly the same things that ISIL is doing now in Syria and Iraq, but it evolved just a bit over time- still very intolerant, still a religious state, but not as violent or expansionist. Instead, there’s been more of a strategy to spread the philosophy of Wahhabism well beyond its borders and cause Wahhabism to be the principle school of thought within Sunni Islam as a whole. Apparently, this has taken hold in the Levant in a big way.
Medieval Catholicism could draw some unfavorable comparisons to this, not least of which is the harsh treatment of heretics, most of whom were put to an end, a far more literal and precise quest to unite Christianity (in the west at least) under a common creed, and of course the hard fought wars of religion against Protestantism, because it was very important that it not survive. For some reason, I’m trying to think of it, what reason was that exactly?
The reasons for unfavorable comparison are mostly obvious to me, but it does occur to me that there may be some reasons not to make such direct comparison that would be far more obvious to Catholics. in particular, the sorts of Catholics who can properly remember exactly why it was so important to put the Reformation down and silence the Reformers permanently. It would be especially helpful if the reasons for doing this are clearly and distinctly of a very different nature than the Wahhabist motives for religious coercion.
For the record, I do fully understand that there are significant points both for and against such a comparison. I’m trying to get a few more details that will more fully explain the extent and nature of points on both sides.
So, without necessarily arguing that there is all that much basis for direct comparison- what can everyone tell me about the various reasons for and against such a comparison? And in the final analysis, just how much does the story of medieval Catholicism translate or relate to the ongoing thing with Wahhabism? As usual, I will probably wind up relating this comparison to religious coercion on a fairly regular basis.
It started out doing exactly the same things that ISIL is doing now in Syria and Iraq, but it evolved just a bit over time- still very intolerant, still a religious state, but not as violent or expansionist. Instead, there’s been more of a strategy to spread the philosophy of Wahhabism well beyond its borders and cause Wahhabism to be the principle school of thought within Sunni Islam as a whole. Apparently, this has taken hold in the Levant in a big way.
Medieval Catholicism could draw some unfavorable comparisons to this, not least of which is the harsh treatment of heretics, most of whom were put to an end, a far more literal and precise quest to unite Christianity (in the west at least) under a common creed, and of course the hard fought wars of religion against Protestantism, because it was very important that it not survive. For some reason, I’m trying to think of it, what reason was that exactly?
The reasons for unfavorable comparison are mostly obvious to me, but it does occur to me that there may be some reasons not to make such direct comparison that would be far more obvious to Catholics. in particular, the sorts of Catholics who can properly remember exactly why it was so important to put the Reformation down and silence the Reformers permanently. It would be especially helpful if the reasons for doing this are clearly and distinctly of a very different nature than the Wahhabist motives for religious coercion.
For the record, I do fully understand that there are significant points both for and against such a comparison. I’m trying to get a few more details that will more fully explain the extent and nature of points on both sides.
So, without necessarily arguing that there is all that much basis for direct comparison- what can everyone tell me about the various reasons for and against such a comparison? And in the final analysis, just how much does the story of medieval Catholicism translate or relate to the ongoing thing with Wahhabism? As usual, I will probably wind up relating this comparison to religious coercion on a fairly regular basis.