concerning Matthew 22:29-30, they would simply say that they were not sealed in the temple and thus for them there is no marriage in heaven.
I understand that they will say that, because D&C 132:15-17 interprets Matt 22:29-30 in exactly that way:
*Therefore, if a man marry him a wife in the world, and he marry her not by me nor by my word, and he covenant with her so long as he is in the world and she with him, their covenant and marriage are not of force when they are dead, and when they are out of the world; therefore, they are not bound by any law when they are out of the world.
Therefore, when they are out of the world they neither marry nor are given in marriage; but are appointed angels in heaven, which angels are ministering servants, to minister for those who are worthy of a far more, and an exceeding, and an eternal weight of glory.
For these angels did not abide my law; therefore, they cannot be enlarged, but remain separately and singly, without exaltation, in their saved condition, to all eternity; and from henceforth are not gods, but are angels of God forever and ever.*
The point of my earlier post was to give one reason why this interpretation fails. While Mormons may *assert *that Jesus only speaks of unworthy persons, Catholics can
demonstrate that he does not, and that Christ really is teaching what it sounds like he is teaching.
I only gave one of the arguments for this. I pointed out that the Mormon reading requires us to take a much lower view of angels that would have been thinkable for first century Jews. According to D&C 132, being made “like the angels” is a penalty for not abiding God’s law, yet the entire Jewish and biblical notion of angels, as the highest of all created beings (they are even called “elohim” in the Old Testament) clashes directly with this view. To say, “If you don’t get a Temple sealing you
only get to be like an angel,” is an un-Jewish type of claim that would have seemed incoherent to Jesus’ hearers, who would only have understood likeness to an angel as a promotion. One must totally ignore biblical teaching about angels to not be struck by this point.
I think that this, as a stand-alone argument, is sufficient, but it might not even be the best reason. Even without knowing about historical and biblical angelology, and just reading the text on its own, one can see that if Jesus is saying what Joseph Smith claims, he is making an illogical, bad argument. The story is that the Saduccees, who deny the resurrection, try to trap Jesus by showing an absurdity in the very notion of resurrection itself: if people are resurrected, and all who have died are alive together again, then those who remarried after the death of a spouse would rise again to a state of polygamy - or polyandry in the example that the Saduccees give. This argument has no reference to who does or does not receive an exaltation - it is an argument against resurrection* as such*. Thus, for Jesus to respond by citing a loophole in a specific example says nothing whatsoever to the actual problem the Saduccees are alleging in Christ’s teaching.
The exact fallacy that Jesus commits on the Mormon reading is non-topicality: he responds to an objection against all resurrection as such by considering one distinct type of resurrection. At best Jesus shows that
not all people will be married in the resurrection, but problem that the Saduccees rasie will hold if
anyone is married in the resurrection. If the Saduccees understood Jesus’ argument in the way Smith does, then they could refute him easily, by simply pointing out that he has dodged the question, for the same problems would apply in the case of someone who did keep the law. Can anyone really think that the gospels are presenting Jesus - himself the author of the Mosaic law - as dodging such a clear question on the topic of the law itself? Of course, not, yet that is the conclusion that the Mormon interpretation would drive us to.