S
spauline
Guest
Everybody knows that today’s parable of the Prodigal Son is actually apocalyptic: the first son in the Jews, the younger son is the Gentiles.
But evidently, the ECF tradition seems to support the notion that the RETURN of the prodigal son was fulfilled by the ***[FIRST] conversion of the Gentiles to Christ. ***But, by the analogy of TIME and the one son being younger, this doesn’t make sense? Why? Because one son is born LATER than the other! That is the clear meaning of being YOUNGER. But what does it mean to be BORN? To be BORN in COVENANT. For the COVENANT with Abraham and of circumcision was when the Hebrews were born. But the birth of the younger son, the Gentiles, does not then accordingly occur until Christ comes and the Gentiles convert the FIRST time. Hence, the conversion of pagan Rome to Catholicism can only be the BIRTH of the younger son, NOT his RETURN to the Father! That is, prior to Christ, the Gentiles were never a part of God’s Family.
Hence, the only way to make sense of the prodogal son is to say that the prodigal son’s DISOWNING of the Father prefigures a FUTURE apostasy of the Gentiles from the Catholic faith AFTER the first conversion, followed by a chastisement for its sin (the famine), followed by a RESTORATION to the New Covenant (the overwhelming Catholic prophecy of the restoration of humanity to the Church in the coming age of peace).
Hence, in the right analysis, the prodigal son parable far more supports the Catholic Private Revelation position that there will be an INTERMEDIATE apostasy of the Gentiles that is healed, rather than the pessimistic Augustinian denial that any such thing could occur prior to the [FINAL, GREAT] apostasy of the end.
for further elaboration on this, I have the following article:
The Prodigal Son and Eschatology
But evidently, the ECF tradition seems to support the notion that the RETURN of the prodigal son was fulfilled by the ***[FIRST] conversion of the Gentiles to Christ. ***But, by the analogy of TIME and the one son being younger, this doesn’t make sense? Why? Because one son is born LATER than the other! That is the clear meaning of being YOUNGER. But what does it mean to be BORN? To be BORN in COVENANT. For the COVENANT with Abraham and of circumcision was when the Hebrews were born. But the birth of the younger son, the Gentiles, does not then accordingly occur until Christ comes and the Gentiles convert the FIRST time. Hence, the conversion of pagan Rome to Catholicism can only be the BIRTH of the younger son, NOT his RETURN to the Father! That is, prior to Christ, the Gentiles were never a part of God’s Family.
Hence, the only way to make sense of the prodogal son is to say that the prodigal son’s DISOWNING of the Father prefigures a FUTURE apostasy of the Gentiles from the Catholic faith AFTER the first conversion, followed by a chastisement for its sin (the famine), followed by a RESTORATION to the New Covenant (the overwhelming Catholic prophecy of the restoration of humanity to the Church in the coming age of peace).
Hence, in the right analysis, the prodigal son parable far more supports the Catholic Private Revelation position that there will be an INTERMEDIATE apostasy of the Gentiles that is healed, rather than the pessimistic Augustinian denial that any such thing could occur prior to the [FINAL, GREAT] apostasy of the end.
for further elaboration on this, I have the following article:
The Prodigal Son and Eschatology