Torture

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The problem with not including “intentions” in the definition is that we run into all kinds of “if/then” situations. If we include those intentions in defining the most blatant forms of torture, then we have a baseline definition from which to work.
The problem with including intentions in the definition is that it unarguably implies (to me, anyway) that, if a bad intention disallows torture, a good intention must allow it. This goes back to an earlier discussion: is torture intrinsically evil? If it is, then the intention is irrelevant and if it is not then there must be situations that allow it, for example the ticking time bomb scenario.

Defining torture as being dependent on intentions assumes that it is not intrinsically evil and I’m sure there are a lot of readers here who don’t accept that. Perhaps we need to revisit that point until it is settled. Are you willing to claim that, based on Church documents, torture is not intrinsically evil?

Ender
 
Maybe the word “intentions” has the wrong connotation. But regardless of the word used, goal, intent, purpose, etc. the purpose has to part of the definition. If we say simply,
Any treatment that results in permanent physical or mental destruction or incapacity.
we have rendered the definition much too broad. The purpose of the treatment must be reintroduced to make sense of the definition.
 
I can recognize as torture any activity that intentionally inflicts a certain level of avoidable pain or suffering. That is, the infliction of pain or suffering is gratuitous and is done to secure the cooperation of the victim. Having said that, I would add that this is a minimum requirement and that not all activity that meets this standard qualifies as torture, but only that nothing failing to meet this standard could be considered torture.

Ender
 
Let take your definition and remove the unnecessary words. Let’s call it Definition #2.
… any activity that intentionally inflicts a certain level of avoidable pain or suffering … to secure the cooperation of the victim.
Now let’s compare it to our original definition. Let’s call it Definition #1.
Any treatment used to extract confession, to punish, to frighten political/military opponents, or to satisfy hatred that results in permanent physical or mental destruction or incapacity.
What do you think? Do you want to add to, take away, or rephrase any part of Definition #2?

The main weakness with Definition #1 is the threshold of suffering is set quite high. I don’t believe that pain and suffering that doesn’t cause “permanent physical or mental destruction or incapacity” is not torture. But, if we completely remove that stipulation, the definition becomes much too broad. For instance, if we put a suspected terrorist in solitary confinement and for some strange reason this is beyond his ability to endure, and he tells all, no torture has taken place. We just have a wimp on our hands.

The main weakness with Definition #2 is it does not adequately define “a certain level of avoidable pain or suffering.” Remember, “one man’s pain and suffering is another man’s inspiration.” Some men will pass out if you get too close to them with a needle. Some men will cut off their own arm with a dull knife to save their own life, or someone else.
 
The main weakness with Definition #1 is the threshold of suffering is set quite high.
I think there are two problems. As you said, the threshold is a bit higher than is probably appropriate but my bigger concern is with the list of reasons given. It doesn’t, for example, exclude torture simply because one is a sadist. I really don’t like creating lists for this.
The main weakness with Definition #2 is it does not adequately define “a certain level of avoidable pain or suffering.”
Absolutely true - I left that intentionally vague. My purpose was first to agree on the point about “the intentional infliction of avoidable pain”. I prefer this generic description to trying to develop a comprehensive list. If we can agree on that we can tackle the degree of suffering that must be imposed before we can claim torture.

Ender
 
… I prefer this generic description to trying to develop a comprehensive list. If we can agree on that we can tackle the degree of suffering that must be imposed before we can claim torture.
Well then let’s go with Definition #2:
Torture is any activity that intentionally inflicts a certain level of avoidable pain or suffering to secure the cooperation of the victim.
I think a key term in this definition is your use of the term “victim”. It gets rid of the medical situations, since a patient is rarely described as the “victim” except in hyperbole.

A question for you, what if the victim’s cooperation isn’t desired or needed by a sadistic torturer? How do we adjust the definition to cover this without changing it?
 
I have heard both sides of this issue one says “if we have a terrorist and he has information, torture them and save a million people.” The biggest flaw in torturing anyone is how do you know what they told you is true. German soldiers caught on the eastern front were tortured by the Russian NKVD and they made up things just so the captors would stop beating them. If a government makes a policy or a rule that torture is on the table then the Constitution is not. In other words, if a country whose law of the land says torture is wrong and that same country does it they are no better than the lawless. This for those that think waterboarding isn’t torture, I heard John McCain (the only thing I agree with him on) say on 60 minutes that he is against torture, preferrably waterboarding. He said, “In World War II, Americans that were waterboarded by the Japanese were treated as war criminals for such conduct.” As long as the government is torturing people and also not allowing these “enemy combantants” in Gitmo some due process which is the decency to not be able to hold people indefinitely our country can’t call ourselves as just or fair as we once did.
 
… The biggest flaw in torturing anyone is how do you know what they told you is true…
Ryan read the following post:
The suggestion that torture won’t work to elicit valid information is a relatively new one, pretty much coinciding with the argument that we shouldn’t use it. Up until recently it was essentially conceded that people would break; now, and probably to counter the “buried child” scenario, it is claimed not to be effective. People who are unalterably opposed to any form of enhanced interrogation had better stay with the moral argument because, as a practical matter, I suspect that torture is often quite effective.

We know that three people have been waterboarded. One, who had held out against all other forms of questioning, gave up what was apparently very valuable information under this form of duress. Read about the US POW experiences in Vietnam. One colonel, who had been a POW for years, tried to commit suicide because he was afraid that, under torture, his captors would learn that he had flown missions during the Tonkin Gulf incident. Read how they learned to deal with their own sense of failure when they gave up information under torture. Read about the behavior of the sailors of the USS Pueblo when they were captured by the North Koreans, or about the intelligence officer in WWII who went out on a submarine mission and chose to go down with the ship rather than escape the sub with the other men and be captured by the Japanese. There are some people who can withstand incredible torture. But most of us can’t.

Ender
… As long as the government is torturing people and also not allowing these “enemy combantants” in Gitmo some due process which is the decency to not be able to hold people indefinitely our country can’t call ourselves as just or fair as we once did.
Why should we release those detainees who’s declared intent is to do us harm? The war against the terrorists is far from over and it has always been the policy of all governments to hold enemy combatants until hostilities cease. We don’t owe the detainees due process, they are not accused of any crimes, they are enemy combatants. What do you mean by “the decency to not be able to hold people indefinitely our country can’t call ourselves as just or fair as we once did?” All nations follow and have always followed the practice of not releasing enemy combatants until hostilities cease, except in the case of specific prisoner exchanges.

If you would like to discuss with us a specific definition of torture please feel free. Please read the past posts so you’ll know where we are. Welcome aboard!
 
Why should we release those detainees who’s declared intent is to do us harm?
which ones are those?
The war against the terrorists is far from over
which is not in Iraq
and it has always been the policy of all governments to hold enemy combatants until hostilities cease. We don’t owe the detainees due process, they are not accused of any crimes, they are enemy combatants.
how do you know that? Maybe you are an enemy combatant and should be checked in to detainment immediately and held until the “war” stops, since you need no due process please report immediately
 
which … ? … how … ? … Maybe you are an enemy combatant and should be checked in to detainment immediately and held until the “war” stops, since you need no due process please report immediately
My post answered you questions. If you want further clarification please do the research. In the eyes of certain terrorists groups I am an enemy combatant and if they got their hands on me I’m sure I would never see the light of day. I hold no illusions of my status or the treatment I would receive. Now what was your point?

We are discussing the definition of torture. You are welcome to join in and lend your expertise to the discussion.
 
I think a key term in this definition is your use of the term “victim”. It gets rid of the medical situations, since a patient is rarely described as the “victim” except in hyperbole.
I tried to handle medical situations with the term “avoidable”; medical procedures often are extremely painful but that is an unavoidable aspect of the treatment.
A question for you, what if the victim’s cooperation isn’t desired or needed by a sadistic torturer? How do we adjust the definition to cover this without changing it?
A sadist inflicts pain that is both intentional and avoidable and therefore meets the definition of torture; the reaction of the victim is not (yet) part of the definition.

Ender
 
My post answered you questions. If you want further clarification please do the research. In the eyes of certain terrorists groups I am an enemy combatant and if they got their hands on me I’m sure I would never see the light of day. I hold no illusions of my status or the treatment I would receive. Now what was your point?

We are discussing the definition of torture. You are welcome to join in and lend your expertise to the discussion.
So are you an enemy combatant?
or
Are you an enemy combatant in their eyes?

the difference is significant

Torture is wrong, in all times, places, and methods
 
Without a decent definition of ‘torture’ your statement is meaningless.
There are two questions regarding torture: (1) is it in fact immoral in every situation (as Texas Roofer insists) and (2) what actions constitute torture? I started out assuming that torture (however it is defined) was always immoral but now, while leaning that way, I am unsure. I haven’t seen a reference to a Church document that convincingly decides the issue.

Still, as you imply, until we can define the term we have no way to know what behavior is permitted even if torture in every situation is banned.

Ender
 
Torture starts with applying duress to others, which is also a wrong. As the duress increases the torture standard is eventually reached. Exactly when I reach your standard of torture (unacceptable duress) is not so important because I have to be actively involved in one wrong and arguing I am venially sinning not morally sinning. Either way the plan involves intentionally sinning against another, which is to go against one of the two primary commandments.
 
Torture starts with applying duress to others, which is also a wrong. As the duress increases the torture standard is eventually reached. Exactly when I reach your standard of torture (unacceptable duress) is not so important …
Using that definition, the simple discipline that the Benedictine Monks employed when I was in high school would be torture.
 
So are you an enemy combatant?
or
Are you an enemy combatant in their eyes?

the difference is significant …
Since it is their perception that matters if I fall into their hands, the difference is not significant. Christians are all soldiers in a spiritual sense.
Torture starts with applying duress …
I agree, but we have to be careful how we define duress. A simple definition is: Coercion illegally applied. The problem is a country can pass a law making such coercion legal and claim that they don’t use torture.

If we drop the word illegally we are really in a pickle. Coercion can be mental or physical. Arrest and imprisonment are forms of coercion or duress. I don’t think anyone would want to let criminals roam freely just because we don’t want to arrest or imprison anyone for fear of torturing the poor souls.

Any suggestions?
 
There are two questions regarding torture: (1) is it in fact immoral in every situation (as Texas Roofer insists) and (2) what actions constitute torture? …
I would have to say that torture is immoral in every situation. The problem is, as you asked, “what actions constitute torture?” Is water boarding torture or just very uncomfortable and frightening? Is sleep deprivation? Is loud music? Is no furniture in a concrete cell? If we don’t have a workable definition the speculation can get silly, as we’ve seen on these threads.
 
My opinion is that the CCC paragraphs used here to lay claim that the Catholic Church bans torture in all forms do not, in fact, ban all forms of torture.
Vz, I apologize for my inappropriate use of sarcasm. Sometimes I forget I should step away from the discussion for a while & consider things before posting. 😊

Given your statement, and after re-reading the entire thread several times, I have decided that I agree with you. No, the Catholic Church does not ban all forms of torture.

That said, it does depend on both the definition of torture, & the use of it, as has been discussed.

So, “What is torture”?

Instead of making up definitions, I prefer to look at the established definition.

From Merriam-Webster Online
1 a: anguish of body or mind: agony
b: something that causes agony or pain
2: the infliction of intense pain (as from burning, crushing or wounding) to punish, coerce, or afford sadistic pleasure
3: distortion or overrefinement of a meaning or an argument: straining


As is evident from the dictionary, intentions are not necessarily a required component for something to become torture.

Obviously, torture as defined in #3 refers to the torture of language – for example, “It depends on what the meaning of ‘is’ is.” This type of “torture” is not banned by the Church, while torture that meets either of the other definitions MAY be banned by the Church.

The “silliness” seen throughout the thread is in the question “*How tortuous does torture have to be to be considered torture? *”, (whew! :confused:) based on perceived degrees.

The question of whether “degrees” of torture qualify it as torture makes the definition subjective & therefore meaningless. Additionally, it creates an implicitly false premise – that torture might not be torture. This is like saying that a fish might not be a fish, or that a circle might not be a circle. Torture is torture, but not all acts (such as appropriately administered corporal punishment) are necessarily torture.

Many (if not most) acts can become torturous. For example, giving someone a light pinch for not wearing green on St. Patrick’s Day does not meet any of the definitions of torture. However, pinching someone hard enough to cause “agony or pain” does.

The risk of confusion also comes from the fact that some cases of torture that meet definition #1 are not necessarily morally evil. For example, cases where the torturous action, (such as the pinch described above,) is accidental, or is performed in legitimate defense would be acceptable. Accidentally slamming a person’s hand in a car door is not evil, but doing it to punish the person for some perceived slight would be evil.

I cannot imagine a scenario where waterboarding, which does meet definition #1b, could be used “accidentally”. The only way people even attempt to justify it is by the reason of “legitimate defense”.

Indeed, the CCC does state that *“… legitimate defense can be not only a right, but a grave duty for one who is responsible for the lives of others. The defense of the common good requires that an unjust aggressor be rendered unable to cause harm.” *

And this seems to be where people take sides on the use of torture.

One side argues that torture used to attain an end of legitimate defense is acceptable, while the other side argues that the end of legitimate defense is not acceptable.

I believe that the Catholic Church falls on the latter side of this equation, & holds that the claim of legitimate defense as a justifiable end does not excuse the use of torture.

Even if certainty existed that the suspect were in fact guilty, & that everything obtained from him would be 100% true. Even assuming “gathering information” is different from “extracting confessions”, and is performed for the end of legitimate defense, the fact remains that the use of torture to coercively frighten opponents into revealing whatever we want to know is morally evil, since the CCC points out that “The end does not justify the means."

1753
“A good intention (for example, that of helping one’s neighbor) does not make behavior that is intrinsically disordered, such as lying and calumny, good or just. The end does not justify the means. Thus the condemnation of an innocent person cannot be justified as a legitimate means of saving the nation. On the other hand, an added bad intention (such as vainglory) makes an act evil that, in and of itself, can be good (such as almsgiving).”

No, this doesn’t mention torture, but then, it doesn’t mention rape or abortion either. The fact that they are not listed along with every possible example does not mean that they are somehow exempt from being evil, & thus are “allowed”.

The Catechism notes in the next paragraph (1754) that:
  • “The circumstances, including the consequences, are secondary elements of a moral act. They contribute to increasing or diminishing the moral goodness or evil of human acts (for example, the amount of a theft). They can also diminish or increase the agent’s responsibility (such as acting out of a fear of death). Circumstances of themselves cannot change the moral quality of acts themselves; they can make neither good nor right an action that is in itself evil*.”
The circumstances may make the use of torture more or less evil, but they cannot change the fact that the use of torture in this way is morally evil.

Although it does not directly hinge on Church teaching, the last point which is worth being noted, is the pragmatic objection used by those who oppose the use of torture the way the US Army Field manual does, which holds as a guiding principle that we should not use any technique against an enemy that we would not like to have used against our own military or civilians. The allowance of torturous means by the US guarantees that our enemies will do the same to us, and point to America as the source of their justification for doing so.

Respectfully,

Chris
 
From Merriam-Webster Online
*
2: the infliction of intense pain (as from burning, crushing or wounding) to punish, coerce, or afford sadistic pleasure
*
This is the definition we’re dealing with.
As is evident from the dictionary, intentions are not necessarily a required component for something to become torture.
Au contraire - the definition above says torture is intense pain inflicted to achieve some end - there is a definite intent involved.
The “silliness” seen throughout the thread is in the question “*How tortuous does torture have to be to be considered torture? *
”, based on perceived degreesNot really so silly - I’m willing to accept “intense pain” but I don’t think everyone else who has participated in this discussion will. I will also point out that this definition is ambiguous on the issue of intense emotional anguish - which really is different than physical pain.
I believe that the Catholic Church … holds that the claim of legitimate defense as a justifiable end does not excuse the use of torture.
I am less interested in what you believe than in what you can demonstrate from Church documents.
the CCC points out that “The end does not justify the means
."No one disputes that; the twofold question is: whether torture is always prohibited regardless of the situation and what procedures are properly considered torture.

Ender
 
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