TOTB Question

[DailyBread]

I am doing a TOTB class and we are getting to the part in Christopher West’s book, “Good News about Sex and Marriage,” where chastity in marriage is discussed. I ike to try to anticipate questions so I can be ready for anything a member might ask and something came to my mind that I am not sure I could answer and I found nothing in the book or in the forum that could tell me the church’s teaching so I will pose it here. I hope it is appropriate for posting and sorry if it isn’t due to age issues.
So we know that it is acceptable for a woman to experience orgasm before during or after male climax so long as its in the context of the act, but say the wife were to experience it before or during the male, is it still acceptable for the woman to experience it right afterwards (even though she experienced it before), or would the church say after is only allowed if not reached before that point? I hope this is an okay question to post here.
Thanks for the (name removed by moderator)ut!

 

[snowflakes]

So we know that it is acceptable for a woman to experience orgasm before during or after male climax so long as its in the context of the act, but say the wife were to experience it before or during the male, is it still acceptable for the woman to experience it right afterwards (even though she experienced it before), or would the church say after is only allowed if not reached before that point?

I am confused. Why would it matter to the church? I am not trying to be rude, I am genuinely curious.

 

[DailyBread]

I meant the Church as in would it be a violation of Sexual Morality according to teachings of the Church in this area, which we have a duty to obey. The question is seeking to find whether such action would be morally licit in the Church’s view.

 

[LittleDeb]

So we know that it is acceptable for a woman to experience orgasm before during or after male climax so long as its in the context of the act, but say the wife were to experience it before or during the male, is it still acceptable for the woman to experience it right afterwards (even though she experienced it before), or would the church say after is only allowed if not reached before that point? I hope this is an okay question to post here.
Thanks for the (name removed by moderator)ut!

Yes, a woman can achieve orgasm at any time before, during, and after a man’s orgasm. And yes, any orgasm must be within the confines of the marital act. Since the woman’s orgasm has no effect on fertility, a woman’s orgasm while not as one flesh with her husband, is not a contraceptive act. Our late Holy Father JPII had a section of his talks on TOTB that included an amazing statement on the gift of giving. He talked of sex being an act of virture for the man when he could be gentle, patient, and loving enough to bring his wife to orgasm. As I said at Christopher West’s talk on the subject…WooHoo!!