J
Jack_245814
Guest
I’m not trying to be snarky or “trick” you guys or anything, but I’ve been reading some “criticisms of the new testament” in miscellaneous places on line . . . all of the criticisms are invalid but one:
Jesus predicts that the apocalypse will occur in the lifetime of his followers, but it never did.
I know there’s a Catholic answer to this, I just don’t know what it is. Was he speaking symbolically? Is it possible for Christ to speak a falsehood? I know that second question in particular reveals my ignorance of Christology (and theology in general). I know Christ is considered to be fully man and fully human, so because he was “part-human” is it possible for him to sin or make an error? . . . The more I learn the more I realize that I don’t know anything at all.
Jesus predicts that the apocalypse will occur in the lifetime of his followers, but it never did.
I know there’s a Catholic answer to this, I just don’t know what it is. Was he speaking symbolically? Is it possible for Christ to speak a falsehood? I know that second question in particular reveals my ignorance of Christology (and theology in general). I know Christ is considered to be fully man and fully human, so because he was “part-human” is it possible for him to sin or make an error? . . . The more I learn the more I realize that I don’t know anything at all.