L
Lion_IRC
Guest
You don’t need to ‘prove’ correlation. The data is what it is.If it is only a “tiny minority,” then how does one know whether it is statistically significant enough to prove a correlation let alone causation?
Event ‘A’ and event ‘B’ are both simultaneously true.
The point here is that children who are sexually abused have a greater statistical likelihood of becoming abusers.
And whether it’s a majority or a minority, the main difference is the arithmetic of how many abuse cases are statistically likely to result in the future.
Yes that seems likely based on the data. And of course we would want to know the background of the person who abuses in those cases as well.Further, what about straight people who were sexually abused as children? Wouldn’t some of them also go on to be sexual abusers?
This is bigger than just one single point. The social pathologies of sexual abuse and mental/sexual disorders are like a monster with many heads.If so, what is your point?
Fortunately, abnormal and undesirable sexual inclinations or addictions can be treated and managed in many cases - reparative therapy.
No. Do you?Do you believe that sexually abused children become only or mainly gay when they are adults?
What we do know is that gay people are statistically more likely to have been abused as children. A fact which may partially explain their higher rates of self-harm, partner-on-partner violence, substance abuse…
Well, you would have to ask the other posters who raised the issue.And what does all of this have to do with transgender people?
But I think the LGBTQIA acronym is deliberately meant to be inclusive and it’s not clear to me whether there’s a clear line of demarcation between bisexual/homosexual/transsexual