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Ite_ad_Ioseph
Guest
I asked this in another sub forum, but figured it was appropriate here.
In the Christian east, Septuagint translations of the psalms are encouraged over the Hebrew translations. How important is the distinction between the two texts theologically and historically? Should I be encouraged to pray according to the Septuagint translation?
In the Christian east, Septuagint translations of the psalms are encouraged over the Hebrew translations. How important is the distinction between the two texts theologically and historically? Should I be encouraged to pray according to the Septuagint translation?