Transubstantiation, Consubstantiation, Sacramental Union

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That is your opinion. It is not the teaching of the Church of Christ.
Hi Q,
I will respond to other parts of you posts when time allows, but for now;
It seems that my opinion is shared by Catholics, at least the ones who participated in this particular dialogue. Now, I know these dialogue do not bind the teaching of either tradition, but…
Differences related to the duration of the eucharistic presence appear also in liturgical practice. Catholic and Lutheran Christians together confess that the eucharistic presence of the Lord Jesus Christ is directed towards believing reception, that it nevertheless is not confined only to the moment of reception, and that it does not depend on the faith of the receiver however closely related to this it might be.
According to Catholic doctrine the Lord grants His presence even beyond the sacramental celebration for as long as the species of bread and wine remain. The faithful are accordingly invited to “give to this holy sacrament in veneration the worship of latria, which is due to the true God”.38
Lutherans have not infrequently taken exception to certain of the forms of eucharistic piety connected with this conviction. They are regarded as inadmissibly separated from the eucharistic meal. On the other hand, Catholic sensibilities are offended by the casual way in which the elements remaining after communion are treated sometimes on the Lutheran side, and this indicates a discrepancy which is not yet overcome (cf. appendix The Presence of Christ in the Eucharist 2).
In order to remedy this situation, it would be good “for Catholics to remember, particularly in catechism and preaching, that the original intention in preserving the eucharistic gifts was to distribute them to the sick and those not present”, and for the Lutherans “the best means should be adopted of showing respect due to the elements that have served for the celebration of the Eucharist, which is to consume them subsequently, without precluding their use for communion of the sick”.39 **Regarding eucharistic adoration, Catholics should take care that their practice does not contradict the common conviction of the meal character of the Eucharist. **They should also be aware of the fact that in the Orthodox Churches, for example, there exist other forms of Eucharistic piety without Eucharistic faith being questioned for this reason. Lutherans for their part should consider “that adoration of the reserved sacrament” not only “has been very much a part of Catholic life and a meaningful form of devotion to Catholics for many centuries”,40 but that also for them “as long as Christ remains sacramentally present, worship, reverence and adoration are appropriate”.41
Jon
 
No, I very much doubt that it is in the Catechism of the Catholic Church. I can’t cite any writing, papal or otherwise, saying it either. That doesn’t matter.
I think it matters very much, when we have popes (rightly) calling different denominations, including non-liturgical denominations, brothers and sisters, and fellow Christians. It is the same thing that some protestants do to Catholic; question their Christianity even though we believe in the same God, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in the exact same way. 🤷 It is my understanding that there is an official teaching of the Catholic church, and denying that I, or anyone else that does not believe in a certain way of labeling bread/wine and body/blood are not Christian is not official teaching, nor what the current or past few popes believed or taught.
The ideas of substance and accident are not merely abstract categories that have no bearing on the real world. The distinction between substance and accident is absolutely necessary to see the world correctly.
From teaching philosophy, I can tell you it isn’t. The terms are pretty specific and linked to very specific perspectives, in this case they are linked to Platonic and Aristotelian ways of describing reality within Metaphysics (which is why, perhaps, that their use to talk about specific spiritual truths bothers me and not others). Philosophers who deny form, substance, accidents, etc… fully believe they see the world correctly without needing to believe what Plato, Aristotle and others from their schools of thought believed.

I prefer to stick with God’s way of talking about creation and reality, which is rooted in a Jewish frame of reference, including concepts such as nephesh. How God sees and decrees something that is living vs. something that is not, how God designed humans and what that means… all of these things have a grounding in Jewish thought and Jewish literature (both old and new testaments). For me, it is important to delve into these descriptions of Metaphysics, and not fall back on my own cultural fore-runners. That is one reason why I see a bit more I can agree with in certain Orthodox teachings, for example what is actually meant by symbolism, mystery, etc…

In short, my reply was to point out that your statement discounting some of your brothers and sisters in that way doesn’t seem to be inline with official Catholic teaching. As a protestant growing more interested in unity and recognizing the Body of Christ, I felt compelled to comment. I apologize if I misunderstood you.
 
I think it matters very much, when we have popes (rightly) calling different denominations, including non-liturgical denominations, brothers and sisters, and fellow Christians. It is the same thing that some protestants do to Catholic; question their Christianity even though we believe in the same God, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in the exact same way. 🤷 It is my understanding that there is an official teaching of the Catholic church, and denying that I, or anyone else that does not believe in a certain way of labeling bread/wine and body/blood are not Christian is not official teaching, nor what the current or past few popes believed or taught.

From teaching philosophy, I can tell you it isn’t. The terms are pretty specific and linked to very specific perspectives, in this case they are linked to Platonic and Aristotelian ways of describing reality within Metaphysics (which is why, perhaps, that their use to talk about specific spiritual truths bothers me and not others). Philosophers who deny form, substance, accidents, etc… fully believe they see the world correctly without needing to believe what Plato, Aristotle and others from their schools of thought believed.

I prefer to stick with God’s way of talking about creation and reality, which is rooted in a Jewish frame of reference, including concepts such as nephesh. How God sees and decrees something that is living vs. something that is not, how God designed humans and what that means… all of these things have a grounding in Jewish thought and Jewish literature (both old and new testaments). For me, it is important to delve into these descriptions of Metaphysics, and not fall back on my own cultural fore-runners. That is one reason why I see a bit more I can agree with in certain Orthodox teachings, for example what is actually meant by symbolism, mystery, etc…

In short, my reply was to point out that your statement discounting some of your brothers and sisters in that way doesn’t seem to be inline with official Catholic teaching. As a protestant growing more interested in unity and recognizing the Body of Christ, I felt compelled to comment. I apologize if I misunderstood you.
I think the conversation comes up in many ways with philosophy and the ancient Church. For example this topic came up the other day in conversation linked below. I don’t know I suppose for myself its understanding whats being said by the Church and perhaps from a different perspective.

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fen.wikipedia.org%2Fwiki%2FTheoria&ei=TZN0VNGCFcX9yQSz-4GgCA&usg=AFQjCNE6JYRwFuJIV0gWjTxSrPIgVO_O9g

I think what your looking for with the CCC is here…

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.scborromeo.org%2Fccc%2Fp123a9p3.htm&ei=epV0VO72BJewyATFxoG4Cw&usg=AFQjCNExQ4hhLuX6GjisRxylvh60eGDlAA
 
I think the conversation comes up in many ways with philosophy and the ancient Church. For example this topic came up the other day in conversation linked below. I don’t know I suppose for myself its understanding whats being said by the Church and perhaps from a different perspective.

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fen.wikipedia.org%2Fwiki%2FTheoria&ei=TZN0VNGCFcX9yQSz-4GgCA&usg=AFQjCNE6JYRwFuJIV0gWjTxSrPIgVO_O9g

I think what your looking for with the CCC is here…

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.scborromeo.org%2Fccc%2Fp123a9p3.htm&ei=epV0VO72BJewyATFxoG4Cw&usg=AFQjCNExQ4hhLuX6GjisRxylvh60eGDlAA
Thank you for the links, will check them out!
 
But it is more than the name, it is the concept that we also reject.
But you don’t. You reject the term consubstantiation, but not the concept. The concept of consubstantiation is identical to the concept of sacramental union. To deny it is like proclaiming belief in the existence of orbs, yet rejecting the existence of balls.

Feel free to disagree, but please do so by engaging with the arguments presented. This is at forum of debate, after all.

Now, for the umptinth time: Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ. Sacramental union means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is “present together” with the substance of the body of Christ. Or to use the explicit language of the Solid Declaration of the Formula of Concord, “under the bread, with the bread, in the bread [the body of Christ is present and offered].”

WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE? I see none. And if local co-presence is a problem (which it is), then I have to ask this question: What sounds more like local co-presence; consubstantiation or that the body of Christ is present “under the bread, with the bread, in the bread”? I know what I think.

Consubstantiation does not imply ‘local copresence,’ just because Calvinists believe so. Calvinists believe all kinds of nonsense. They say that even transubstantiation implies ‘local presence.’ Why let such people define your beliefs? Roman Catholics doesn’t change their belief in transubstantiation just because Calvinists believe that it means local presence.
 
=KjetilK;12521461]But you don’t. You reject the term consubstantiation, but not the concept. The concept of consubstantiation is identical to the concept of sacramental union. To deny it is like proclaiming belief in the existence of orbs, yet rejecting the existence of balls.
Hi Father.
The problem is you are not arguing against me, but against the entirety of Lutheran thought since the Reformation. Lutheranism reject the term and the concept.
“Consubstantiation. The charge that the Lutheran Church holds this monstrous doctrine has been repeated times without number. In the face of her solemn protestations the falsehood is still circulated. It would be easy to fill many pages with the declarations of the Confessions of the Evangelical Lutheran Church, and of her great theologians, who, without a dissenting voice, repudiate this doctrine, the name and the thing, in whole and in every one of its parts.” - Krauth
Feel free to disagree, but please do so by engaging with the arguments presented. This is at forum of debate, after all.
Now, for the umptinth time: Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ.
And for the umpteenth time, Lutherans reject this very idea.
“We believe in no consubstantiative presence of the body and blood. Far from us be that figment. The heavenly thing and the Earthly thing in the Lord’s Supper are not present with each other physically and naturally." John Gerhard
Sacramental union means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is “present together” with the substance of the body of Christ. Or to use the explicit language of the Solid Declaration of the Formula of Concord, “under the bread, with the bread, in the bread [the body of Christ is present and offered].”
Right words, wrong interpretation:
" When this presence is called substantial and bodily, those words designate not the MODE of presence, but the OBJECT. When the words in, with, under, are used, our traducers know, as well as they know their own fingers, that they do NOT signify a CONSUBSTANTIATION, local co-existence, or impanation. The charge that we hold a local inclusion, or Consubstantiation, is a calumny. The eating and drinking are not physical, but mystical and sacramental. An action is not necessarily figurative because it is not physical. " - Carpsov
and
“It is impossible to define Luther’s doctrine as consubstantiation. Even the words ‘in the bread’, ‘with the bread’, ‘under the bread’, or ‘in, with, and under the bread’, were never regarded by Luther as more than attempts to express in these old, popular terms inherited from the Middle Ages the great mystery that the bread is the body, the wine is the blood, as the Words of Institution say.” - Sasse
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE? I see none. And if local co-presence is a problem (which it is), then I have to ask this question: What sounds more like local co-presence; consubstantiation or that the body of Christ is present “under the bread, with the bread, in the bread”? I know what I think.
Consubstantiation, because, as one can see, the Lutheran understanding of “in,with, and under” is not a local co-presence. The FoC even states this.
Consubstantiation does not imply ‘local copresence,’ just because Calvinists believe so. Calvinists believe all kinds of nonsense. They say that even transubstantiation implies ‘local presence.’ Why let such people define your beliefs? Roman Catholics doesn’t change their belief in transubstantiation just because Calvinists believe that it means local presence.
Ok, I don’t understand then. In your post you speak of consub as being a local co-presence, (**“Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ.” ** ) and here you say it is not.
Beyond that, you are implying here that either I, specifically, or Lutherans generally, have changed their belief regarding this. This is not the case. From Leonhard Hutter: *" When we use the particles ‘in, with, and under’, we understand no local inclusion whatever, not transubstantiation or consubstantiation.” *
Lutherans have always rejected consubstantiation, the term and the concept.

Jon
 
Hi Father.
The problem is you are not arguing against me, but against the entirety of Lutheran thought since the Reformation. Lutheranism reject the term and the concept.
What is it with all these appeals to authority? Why not address my arguments instead of saying ‘but everybody else says so’?
Now, for the umptinth time: Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ.
And for the umpteenth time, Lutherans reject this very idea.
Not if they follow the FC. That is almost verbatim the definition found therein. Please explain the difference without becoming a postmodernist.
Right words, wrong interpretation……
The problem with this is that it implies that consubstantiation doesn’t refer to the object, but to the mode, yet presents not argument for that position. The premise behind the argument, here in the words of Carpsov, is that sacramental union is not consubstantiation, since it refer to OBJECT, not MODE. The hidden premise, then, is that consubstantiation refers to MODE, not OBJECT. There is nothing in the Latin word consubstantiatio that suggests this. So why should I accept that?
Consubstantiation, because, as one can see, the Lutheran understanding of “in,with, and under” is not a local co-presence.
And neither is consubstantiation.
Ok, I don’t understand then. In your post you speak of consub as being a local co-presence, (**“Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ.” ** ) and here you say it is not.
So you reject the FC, then? The FC states, verbatim, that in the Eucharist “the two substances, the natural bread and the true natural body of Christ, are present together here upon earth.” If my sentence implies local co-presence, then so does this. If the sentence in the FC doesn’t imply local co-presence, then neither does consubstantiation.

When two definitions are identical, the object(s) to which they refer are most likely identical.
Lutherans have always rejected consubstantiation, the term and the concept.
Some Lutherans, not all. I do reject it, but that is because I am convinced that transubstantiation is better attested (than consubstantiation/sacramental union) both in Scripture and in the Catholic Tradition (as I have already said in this discussion, here and here). Allow me to make the case again.

In its 10th article Confessio Augustana teaches that “the Body and Blood of Christ are truly present [in the Eucharist]” (Latin version) or that “the true Body and Blood of Christ is truly present under the form (Ger. Gestalt) of the Bread and Wine in the Supper” (German version). Gestalt have many different meanings in German. One of them is what is called ‘accidents.’ This is not incompatible with transubstantiation, but is also open to consubstantiation/sacramental union. And since there is no mention of sacramental union in Confessio Augustana, I am free to reject it.

But then we come to the conclusion of the dogmatic section of the confession (articles 1-21). It states that these articles contain “nothing that varies from the Scriptures, or from the Church Catholic, or from the Church of Rome.”

That means that the confession is at least open to, if not embracing, transubstantiation, since that has been taught definitively by ‘the Church of Rome’ well before the Reformation. It was taught at the Fourth Lateran Council, in 1215. Last time I checked, that council would qualify as a function of ‘the Church of Rome.’ From this, I see nothing ‘un-Lutheran’ by adhering to transubstantiation. It seems, on the contrary, to be the logical reading of Confessio Augustana.

And it seems that the FC contradicts Confessio Augustana, since ‘sacramental union’ have never been taught by ‘the Church of Rome.’
 
Hi Q,
I will respond to other parts of you posts when time allows, but for now;
It seems that my opinion is shared by Catholics, at least the ones who participated in this particular dialogue. Now, I know these dialogue do not bind the teaching of either tradition, but…
Quite right that the doctrine does not bind either teaching. But, taken everything it says for granted, I don’t see it addressing the points disputed in this thread.

(1) I have not argued in this thread that the Formula of Concord teaches that the eucharistic presence is confined to the moment of reception. What I did argue is that it very strongly suggests in its teaching of extra usum that the presence is confined to the service. This agrees with with the thrust Luther’s writing on the subject and you yourself who suggest that there is no certainty that the presence of Christ extends beyond the service. The FC takes a less agnostic view, explicitly rejecting the opinion that Christ is present in the Sacrament during eucharistic processions or when it is reserved in the tabernacle.

(2) The main issue at hand, from the thread title, concerns consubstantiation and whether the Formula of Concord teaches it, and corollary to that, whether the teaching of the Formula of Concord is compatible with Catholic doctrine. The dialogue quoted does not address this issue at all. I think enough text has been presented from the Solid Declaration of the Formula of Concord to settle that question. It speaks for itself.

I think you are also being inconsistent in your interpretation of texts. Let me quote back what you said here in response to KjetilK.
Ok, I don’t understand then. In your post you speak of consub as being a local co-presence, (**“Consubstantiation means that, in the Eucharist, the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ.” ** ) and here you say it is not.
According to your hermeneutic, when KjetilK says, “the substance of bread is present together with the substance of the body of Christ,” the opinion he is describing is that of a “local co-presence,” even though he explicitly said that it was not the intention.

Also according to your hermeneutic, when the Formula of Concord says, “in the Holy Supper the two substances, the natural bread and the true natural body of Christ, are present together here upon earth in the appointed administration of the Sacrament,” it is not teaching neither a local co-presence nor consubstantiation. But, if what KjetilK said indicated a local co-presence, the FC does doubly so. They not only use the exact same words he did (where do you think KjetilK got his definition from?), but they also add, “here on earth.” Of course they clarify that by this they do not intend to indicate a local presence, and if you are willing to extend to them the benefit of the doubt, why do you do the opposite to KjetilK?
 
I think it matters very much, when we have popes (rightly) calling different denominations, including non-liturgical denominations, brothers and sisters, and fellow Christians. It is the same thing that some protestants do to Catholic; question their Christianity even though we believe in the same God, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in the exact same way. 🤷 It is my understanding that there is an official teaching of the Catholic church, and denying that I, or anyone else that does not believe in a certain way of labeling bread/wine and body/blood are not Christian is not official teaching, nor what the current or past few popes believed or taught.
I think that the Church’s application of the word Christian to those outside visible Communion with the Church is often confusing to non-Catholics. You said, “we believe in the same God, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in the exact same way.” That is certainly a good thing, but the use of the term Christian does not primarily signify a sharing of a common minimum of doctrine. It is actually a primarily sacramental statement, an acknowledgement of the validity of Protestant baptisms. See for example the Second Vatican Council’s Decree on Ecumenism, which explains this.

For men who believe in Christ and have been truly baptized are in communion with the Catholic Church even though this communion is imperfect. The differences that exist in varying degrees between them and the Catholic Church - whether in doctrine and sometimes in discipline, or concerning the structure of the Church - do indeed create many obstacles, sometimes serious ones, to full ecclesiastical communion. The ecumenical movement is striving to overcome these obstacles. But even in spite of them it remains true that all who have been justified by faith in Baptism are members of Christ’s body, and have a right to be called Christian, and so are correctly accepted as brothers by the children of the Catholic Church.
(Unitatis Redintegratio 3)

You can find a fuller treatment of the relation of Catholics and non-Catholics in the CDF’s declaration Dominus Iesus. vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20000806_dominus-iesus_en.html

This is also the reason why Mormons are generally not called Christians, because their baptisms are regarded as invalid, due to a defect of form. It is appropriate though that you brought up a common belief in the Trinity between Catholics and most Protestants. In a certain sense, that common belief, in addition to whatever other belief is necessary for the use of necessary intent, form and matter in baptism is that required minimum of belief to be Christians according to the usage of the Second Vatican Council, since that is the necessary minimum to administer baptism validly. However, this is not the same thing as the Lutheran distinction between necessary beliefs and adiaphora (trying to stay on the thread topic somehow). In fact, one could belong to a sect that subscribed to the worst of Christological errors, e.g. denying the Incarnation, and still have valid baptism. And in the sense of the Second Vatican II, they would “have a right to be called Christian.” So in short, it is not like cars where Protestants are the basic model of Christians and Catholics are the deluxe model. But rather, Protestants are Christians because they retain baptism, which is the means of entry to the Church, in addition to other elements of sanctification.

In the sense given above, I would say that one can definitely deny substance and accident and think in a way irreconcilable with these concepts yet still be a Christian. I don’t see why that would invalidate baptism. However, I also think that such a person would lack a meaningful understanding of all the chief doctrines of the Catholic faith. Even the Lutherans in the Formula of Concord maintain that it is necessary to retain the categories of substance and accident.
 
I think that the Church’s application of the word Christian to those outside visible Communion with the Church is often confusing to non-Catholics.
I don’t find it confusing at all… I do find your stance, or your statements, on the subject confusing given the official position of the RCC as explained through the CCC and several very well written encyclicals by the most recent Pontiffs, which I urge my fellow non-Catholics who have not done so, to read, as not only are we acknowledged to be fellow brothers and sisters, but also in imperfect communion with the RCC itself (which you cite and then seemingly disagree with previously in trying to say non-liturgical protestants who don’t believe in using the Aristotelian terms, such as substance and accident, are not Christian, and now saying that perhaps they are… hence the confusion).
in short, it is not like cars where Protestants are the basic model of Christians and Catholics are the deluxe model.

You and I (and perhaps you and others in your church) are not going to agree here, so in order to avoid uncharitable argumentation, I’ll wish you a Happy Thanksgiving, and bow out. Thank you for your time. 😊
 
Thanks, Kliska. I hope you had a good Thanksgiving too.

To clarify what I said earlier, “Christian” is a word used equivocally. In the usage of the Second Vatican Council, to be Christian is to belong to the Church (which is not necessarily the same thing as to be “in the Church”). In the sense I was using it, it meant professing Christian faith or certain articles of faith. This is probably the sense that the word “Christian” would have to most Protestants. In other uses, such as statistics, “Christian” might signify those who claim to follow Christ or merely those who call themselves Christians. According to this definition, Mormons would be Christians, even though they wouldn’t according to the preceding definitions. These are all different meanings, but that does not mean that any are wrong. Only that the intention of the speaker must be understood. In my case, I clarified what I meant, viz., that one could not reject certain principles and have a meaningful understanding of foundational Christian doctrine.

What is confusing to me is your objection that Protestants are called Christians by certain popes. I don’t see that as a contradiction to what I had said earlier since I don’t think most Protestants reject the idea of substance and accident in the first place (since they are the intuitive understanding of reality), and, secondly, calling a group of people Christian does not mean that every individual of that group has an accurate understanding of even fundamental points of belief.

What I have said is not in contradiction with the documents of the Second Vatican Council (Ad Gentes, Lumen Gentium and Unitatis Redintegratio) or the recent popes, Francis and Benedict.
 
Hi Father K,
Please forgive my absence. Holiday and all.
=KjetilK;12522270]What is it with all these appeals to authority? Why not address my arguments instead of saying ‘but everybody else says so’?
I do not understand this. Is it not the practice of our tradition to refer back to our theologians, and the Church Fathers to understand our faith? Is that not what separates our tradition from the Bible only folks? I expect our Catholic siblings to refer to St. Thomas Aquinas, and others.
I am a layman. I have no formal theological training, and I rely on the teachings of the Church. But the fact is that, when it comes to our tradition and consubstantiation, “everybody else says so”. We do not now, nor have Lutherans ever believed in it, in any form of instruction or belief that has held that term.
Not if they follow the FC. That is almost verbatim the definition found therein. Please explain the difference without becoming a postmodernist.
The term and teaching has been rejecting since the writing of the FoC. The FoC clearly rejects it.
The problem with this is that it implies that consubstantiation doesn’t refer to the object, but to the mode, yet presents not argument for that position. The premise behind the argument, here in the words of Carpsov, is that sacramental union is not consubstantiation, since it refer to OBJECT, not MODE. The hidden premise, then, is that consubstantiation refers to MODE, not OBJECT. There is nothing in the Latin word consubstantiatio that suggests this. So why should I accept that?
You seem to be under the impression that a Latin “definition” of the term is the “teaching(s)” that the term has been used to represent. If Lutherans accept the term, then we are accepting the teaching(s) that term has been used to describe, which I have provided here often.
So you reject the FC, then? The FC states, verbatim, that in the Eucharist “the two substances, the natural bread and the true natural body of Christ, are present together here upon earth.” If my sentence implies local co-presence, then so does this. If the sentence in the FC doesn’t imply local co-presence, then neither does consubstantiation.
Clearly I accept the FoC, but all of it, not the one part of it that you use.
Although this union of the body and blood of Christ with the bread and wine is not a personal union, as that of the two natures in Christ, but as Dr. Luther and our theologians, in the frequently mentioned Articles of Agreement [Formula of Concord] in the year 1536 and in other places call it sacramentatem unionem, that is, a sacramental union, by which they wish to indicate that, although they also employ the formas: in pane, sub pane, cum pane, that is, these distinctive modes of speech: in the bread, under the bread, with the bread, yet they have received the words of Christ properly and as they read, and have understood the proposition, that is, the words of Christ’s testament: Hoc est corpus meum, This is My body, not as a figuratam propositionem, but inusitatam (that is, not as a figurative, allegorical expression or comment, but as an unusual expression). 39] For thus Justin says: This we receive not as common bread and common drink; but as Jesus Christ, our Savior, through the Word of God became flesh, and on account of our salvation also had flesh and blood, so we believe that the food blessed by Him through the Word and prayer is the body and blood of our Lord Jesus Christ. 40] Likewise Dr. Luther also in his Large and especially in his last Confession concerning the Lord’s Supper with great earnestness and zeal defends the very form of expression which Christ used at the first Supper.
All through the BoC, this is the point, that we as Lutherans believe one thing" “This [the bread] is my body”, “this [the wine] is my blood”.
Some Lutherans, not all. I do reject it, but that is because I am convinced that transubstantiation is better attested (than consubstantiation/sacramental union) both in Scripture and in the Catholic Tradition (as I have already said in this discussion, here and here). Allow me to make the case again.
Be clear here, Father, I am not the one making the accusations. I accept the fact that you believe Transubstantiation is a better expression of the real presence than consubstantiation. Even Luther’s main opposition to Transub. was the making it a doctrine. OTOH, you are trying to say that I believe something that I do not, that Lutherans who accept the FC believe something they do not, and is not there taught.

continued
 
In its 10th article Confessio Augustana teaches that “the Body and Blood of Christ are truly present [in the Eucharist]” (Latin version) or that “the true Body and Blood of Christ is truly present under the form (Ger. Gestalt) of the Bread and Wine in the Supper” (German version). Gestalt have many different meanings in German. One of them is what is called ‘accidents.’ This is not incompatible with transubstantiation, but is also open to consubstantiation/sacramental union. And since there is no mention of sacramental union in Confessio Augustana, I am free to reject it.
That’s fine.
But then we come to the conclusion of the dogmatic section of the confession (articles 1-21). It states that these articles contain “nothing that varies from the Scriptures, or from the Church Catholic, or from the Church of Rome.”
That means that the confession is at least open to, if not embracing, transubstantiation, since that has been taught definitively by ‘the Church of Rome’ well before the Reformation. It was taught at the Fourth Lateran Council, in 1215. Last time I checked, that council would qualify as a function of ‘the Church of Rome.’ From this, I see nothing ‘un-Lutheran’ by adhering to transubstantiation. It seems, on the contrary, to be the logical reading of Confessio Augustana.
Then you have to accept the idea that Lateran Four is an ecumenical council, binding on the whole Church. If so, okay. But I don’t think that is what Augsburg means.

Jon
 
I do not understand this. Is it not the practice of our tradition to refer back to our theologians, and the Church Fathers to understand our faith?
My point is that when I make an argument, I expect that my points are answered. Instead many of the answers have been, basically, this: “But many theologians disagree!” Yes, that may be the case. That doesn’t mean that my points become invalid.
The term and teaching has been rejecting since the writing of the FoC. The FoC clearly rejects it.
Yes, I know that the FC claims to reject consubstantiation. My point is that this claim is incoherent, since there is nothing, in the definitions of, respectably, sacramental union and consubstantiation, to distinguish the two. My point is not a historical one, but a theological and philosophical one. When we analyse what consubstantiation implies and what sacramental union implies, we see that they are indistinguishable. And the logical thing is then to conclude that they are, indeed, the same thing.
Then you have to accept the idea that Lateran Four is an ecumenical council, binding on the whole Church. If so, okay. But I don’t think that is what Augsburg means.
No, I’m not. Not necessarily. I may believe it is. Or I may believe it is not. That changes nothing in my argument. It seems that you misunderstood my point.

Confessio Augustana makes, in article 21, a distinction between ‘the Church Catholic’ (Ecclesia Catholica) and ‘the Church of Rome’ (Ecclesia Romana). Ecumenical councils would, in my opinion, fall under ‘the Church Catholic.’ But the article doesn’t merely appeal to the universal Church, it appeals, directly, to ‘the Church of Rome.’ The claim made, in article 21, is that there is nothing in the doctrinal section (art. 1-21) “that varies from the Scriptures, or from the Church Catholic, or from the Church of Rome.”

That means that there is nothing, not a single thing, in article 10, that varies from what is taught not only by Scripture and ‘the Church Catholic’ but also from what is taught by ‘the Church of Rome.’ But if Confessio Augustana 10 does not teach transubstantiation, then there IS something in Confessio Augustana art. 1-21 that “varies from … the Church of Rome.”

I am thus not saying that the Fourth Lateran Council is ecumenical, and thus binding on the whole Church. I am saying that when Confessio Augustana claims that art. 10 does not vary from what is taught by ‘the Church of Rome,’ we must take it at its word. And since transubstantiation is taught as a dogma by ‘the Church of Rome,’ and had been so for at least 315 years when Confessio Augustana was published, the logical move would be to say that Confessio Augustana does teach transubstantiation. Either that, or the statement in art. 21 is just deceitful lip service.
 
If we reject the Formula of Concord as a binding, or adequate, expression of Lutheran belief, as I do, there is nothing - neither in the Small Catechism nor in Confessio Augustana - which indicates that you must reject transubstantiation and believe in consubstantiation (or sacramental presence).
Out of curiosity, even though you believe in transubstantiation, do you still believe, as stated in the Wittenburg Concordia of 1536 in which Luther and his colleagues reached an agreement with Martin Bucer and other south Germans, that “apart from reception – for example, when the bread is laid aside and kept in the tabernacle or carried about and put on display in the procession, as happens in the papacy – the body of Christ is not present.”
 
Out of curiosity, even though you believe in transubstantiation, do you still believe, as stated in the Wittenburg Concordia of 1536 in which Luther and his colleagues reached an agreement with Martin Bucer and other south Germans, that “apart from reception – for example, when the bread is laid aside and kept in the tabernacle or carried about and put on display in the procession, as happens in the papacy – the body of Christ is not present.”
Why would I?

Most of the European Lutherans have never accepted anything as doctrinally binding outside Scripture, the Apostles’s Creed, the Nicene Creed, the Athanasian Creed, Confessio Augustana, and Luther’s Small Catechism.
 
=KjetilK;12534041]My point is that when I make an argument, I expect that my points are answered. Instead many of the answers have been, basically, this: “But many theologians disagree!” Yes, that may be the case. That doesn’t mean that my points become invalid.
Its the case, Father, because what they say is true: Lutherans have never taught consubstantiation. And that seems to be the point.
Yes, I know that the FC claims to reject consubstantiation. My point is that this claim is incoherent, since there is nothing, in the definitions of, respectably, sacramental union and consubstantiation, to distinguish the two. My point is not a historical one, but a theological and philosophical one. When we analyse what consubstantiation implies and what sacramental union implies, we see that they are indistinguishable. And the logical thing is then to conclude that they are, indeed, the same thing.
I understand that you see it as incoherent. That’s one of the reasons I brought up the Lutheran theologians. They don’t see the claim as incoherent.
No, I’m not. Not necessarily. I may believe it is. Or I may believe it is not. That changes nothing in my argument. It seems that you misunderstood my point.
Actually, I think it is important. In the conclusion of the Augsburg Confession, the reformers claim that nothing they teach is outside the Church Catholic. If Lateran Four is outside the Church Catholic, there would be no contradiction.
Confessio Augustana makes, in article 21, a distinction between ‘the Church Catholic’ (Ecclesia Catholica) and ‘the Church of Rome’ (Ecclesia Romana). Ecumenical councils would, in my opinion, fall under ‘the Church Catholic.’ But the article doesn’t merely appeal to the universal Church, it appeals, directly, to ‘the Church of Rome.’ The claim made, in article 21, is that there is nothing in the doctrinal section (art. 1-21) “that varies from the Scriptures, or from the Church Catholic, or from the Church of Rome.”
That means that there is nothing, not a single thing, in article 10, that varies from what is taught not only by Scripture and ‘the Church Catholic’ but also from what is taught by ‘the Church of Rome.’ But if Confessio Augustana 10 does not teach transubstantiation, then there IS something in Confessio Augustana art. 1-21 that “varies from … the Church of Rome.”
I am thus not saying that the Fourth Lateran Council is ecumenical, and thus binding on the whole Church. I am saying that when Confessio Augustana claims that art. 10 does not vary from what is taught by ‘the Church of Rome,’ we must take it at its word. And since transubstantiation is taught as a dogma by ‘the Church of Rome,’ and had been so for at least 315 years when Confessio Augustana was published, the logical move would be to say that Confessio Augustana does teach transubstantiation. Either that, or the statement in art. 21 is just deceitful lip service.
Father, by your approach here t the UAG, it seems you have to accept Lateran Four, since The Church of Rome does.

Jon
 
I understand that you see it as incoherent. That’s one of the reasons I brought up the Lutheran theologians. They don’t see the claim as incoherent.
And I’ve provided arguments as to WHY the claim is incoherent. It would be good if anyone could answer those points, specifically. This is a forum for debate, after all.
Actually, I think it is important. In the conclusion of the Augsburg Confession, the reformers claim that nothing they teach is outside the Church Catholic. If Lateran Four is outside the Church Catholic, there would be no contradiction
Father, by your approach here t the UAG, it seems you have to accept Lateran Four, since The Church of Rome does.
But Confessio Augustana doesn’t merely appeal to ‘the Church Catholic.’ It also appeals to ‘the Church of Rome,’ insofar as it has taught on the topics covered in the first part of Confessio Augustana.

So no, my argument doesn’t amount to me having to accept the aforementioned council as a council binding on all. But what it teaches on the topics covered in the first part of Confessio Augustana cannot be said to contradict it, according to the words of Confessio Augustana itself.
 
=KjetilK;12535343]And I’ve provided arguments as to WHY the claim is incoherent. It would be good if anyone could answer those points, specifically. This is a forum for debate, after all.
Hi Father,
I think I have answered your arguments. When speaking of consubstantiation in this way, we are not speaking of some isolated definition from the Latin, but instead the historic usage of the term in describing the presence of Christ in the Eucharist. The term has been used to express the presence in a number of ways - local co-presence, mingling, a third substance from two, etc. None of these, in any way, describe the Lutheran understanding. Therefore, to say that BC supports consubstantiation is false. The BC itself essentially says it does not. The balance of the BoC says it does not. Throughout the BoC we see references to the doctrine of the real presence itself, that being, we believe teach and confess that we receive Christ’s words as said them; “This IS my body”, This IS my blood". This what? This bread and this wine. It is bread and wine, but not mere bread and wine. It IS the body and blood of Christ. This is consistent with the Church Fathers, and it is not consubstantiation.

Further, one doesn’t get to decide the understanding of another communion. No Lutheran of note throughout the history of our tradition within the Church Catholic has described the Lutheran understanding as consubstantiation, but has instead repudiated that description.
Catholics regularly speak of prayer to the Blessed Virgin Mary and the saints, but it would be wrong to accuse them of thinking of her as a goddess, using the definition of “prayer”
as meaning prays to God. Catholics get to decide their understanding of the usage of “prayer” in this way. Hence, it cannot be said that Catholics believe the Blessed Virgin is a goddess.
But Confessio Augustana doesn’t merely appeal to ‘the Church Catholic.’ It also appeals to ‘the Church of Rome,’ insofar as it has taught on the topics covered in the first part of Confessio Augustana.
So no, my argument doesn’t amount to me having to accept the aforementioned council as a council binding on all. But what it teaches on the topics covered in the first part of Confessio Augustana cannot be said to contradict it, according to the words of Confessio Augustana itself.
The Church of Rome believes in Transubstantiation dogmatically, binding the conscience of the believer to it. Is that what you think Augsburg is then saying, when it claims that there is nothing contrary to the Church Catholic in what we believe, teach, and confess?

Jon
 
Further, one doesn’t get to decide the understanding of another communion. No Lutheran of note throughout the history of our tradition within the Church Catholic has described the Lutheran understanding as consubstantiation, but has instead repudiated that description.
In America, yes. Not in Europe. I have frequently heard the ‘standard’ Lutheran teaching being described as consubstantiation.
The Church of Rome believes in Transubstantiation dogmatically, binding the conscience of the believer to it. Is that what you think Augsburg is then saying, when it claims that there is nothing contrary to the Church Catholic in what we believe, teach, and confess?
That is what I’m saying, yes. If Confessio Augustana, in its 10th article, does not teach transubstantiation, then there IS something in Confessio Augustana art. 1-21 that “varies from … the Church of Rome.” But the claim made by Confessio Augustana is that these articles, including article 10, does NOT teach contrary to Rome, on this issue.

I just take Confessio Augustana at its word. If I have to become a Roman Catholic in order to be faithful to Confessio Augustana, then so be it.
 
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