Jesus also said, “I am the vine you are the branches…” He said, “I am the door…” How about “I am the bread of life” or, “I am the light of the world.” These were all common metaphors used throughout the gospels. Do you think Jesus wanted us to believe He was a literal door? of course not, but why not? … Should we believe He was a literal vine? of course not, but why not? on what bases?
Did Jesus say He was the Son of God? (Actually, yes, in John 10:36, and also, by way of affirmation, in Mt 16:17.)
Do you claim that He was just using ‘metaphor’ when He made that claim? (Boy, I hope not!

)
If your answer is “no”, then you have a problem: Jesus spoke
both metaphorically
and literally. How are you to judge what his intent was, when He said “this is my body”, then? I mean… you weren’t there to see if He was making finger quotes, right?
But, the apostles
were there. And their belief – and the belief and practice of the early Church – was that it was a literal statement. Who are we to contradict them, who themselves were at the first Eucharist?
He said He was bread. Why should we treat this statement any different than the others? if so, on what scriptural bases?
On every Scriptural basis that talks about the Eucharist as the body and blood of Christ. 1 Cor 11:29 comes to mind immediately.
(However, where does the
Bible say that there must be a Scriptural basis? In fact, it says precisely the opposite: "Then Jesus approached and said to them, ‘All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you.’ " (Mt 28:18-20) You see, Jesus’ command was that the apostles
teach. We have records of what they taught; people wrote about what they taught … and what they taught is what the Catholic Church teaches today: the Eucharist is truly the body and blood of Christ.)
It was common for Jesus to convey spiritual truth by natural means. There is no reasonable point made here to make an exception by one verse of scripture while ignoring the many others.
I agree: there is no reasonable point here to make an exception by one verse of Scripture while ignoring the many others
in which Jesus also spoke literally.
It smells of a bias read into the passage forcing an unreasonable interpretation by people determined to defend a doctrine that evolved centuries in time.
No – it was believed to be Jesus’ body from the beginning. Read up on the early Church Fathers. You’ll see. (Now, what
did develop over time was a philosophy that explained
how it could be so. However, the belief had been there all the time, even though it took a while to explain it satisfactorily.)
Blessings,
G.