P
PRmerger
Guest
Perhaps you could just clarify, because it seems that I am not alone in being confused about your point.Good day Merger.
Firstly I see numerous other posters joined in here. You all must understand I neither have the stamina or time to answer every one. The extent to what my mere little opinionated post regarding opinions has brought, is somewhat mind blowing. I referred it to a certain poster whom I have conversed with many times and that was the intent.
So I see you have a tendency to only quote half my post when you reply. If you go and pick parts out I understand how you can reply this. I was not just stating that we are not proficient in Greek as an independent statement. You missed (also interestingly) the second part of that statement. The second part I have stated twice and now a third time is that
Taking the above into account after you understand the post, the last 3 lines of your post becomes irrelevant as you can see I never said that (Maybe just seems that way if you quote/read half my post).
- Why did Trent not challenge that? - And also, why later on even referring to his own statements in the same way? So my question isn’t anything to do with a limitation on us when trying to understand Scripture, that’s a very funny thing to say to a Protestant. But rather that someone who is obviously proficient in many things, have all the reasons to want to challenge that, but didn’t? Maybe he didn’t agree with it, but that just means he didn’t think it mattered. So if you put all this together and hopefully understand my post now, you should see your question is pretty much as you like to state non sequitur.
Regards
Are you suggesting that it’s a requirement for someone to be a Professor in Greek in order to understand when a verse is prescriptive vs descriptive?