Trinity and Mormon godhead

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I hope you don’t mind, but this is an entry from my blog. THe reason I’ve posted it here is 1. because it fits the subject matter of this forum and 2. so that Catholics who know the trinity better than me will hopefully correct any factual errors.

I’ll never forget the day when, as a new member baptized maybe three months ago, missionaries showed up at my apartment to ask me what the different was between the godhead as spelled out by the Articles of Faith and the trinity as believed by orthodox Christianity. Part of the reason it’s an episode burned into my mind is that I was so shocked that these poor missionaries who had gone through the Missionary Training Center, one who was on the tail end of his mission, did not understand basic Mormon theology. For all you orthodox Christians out there who read this, let this be a lesson for you when you speak to Mormons before you accuse them of lying or being brainwashed. The reality of the situation is that many Mormons, maybe the majority, do not understand basic Mormon theology anymore. For you Mormons, you may argue that the doctrine of the trinity just doesn’t make sense, it’s a contradiction in terms, and that’s why there is confusion.

Let’s start with the trinity. The grounding assumption of any formulation of the trinity starts with the assumption that there is but One God. By God here I mean the immutable, infinite, eternal, necessary being labeled God. There are two ways to come to this conclusion, through philosophy and through exegesis of the Bible. Through philosophy you can come to suspect that the God I stated above exists through classic arguments such as the argument from contingency or the ontological argument. It follows from such arguments that there would be only one such being, as a truly infinite, necessary, immutable being would be a true unity. From the Bible verses from especially deutero Isaiah and the New Testament, when monotheism was firmly established in Israel, reaffirm the notion that there is but one God.

With that established, the next thing integrated into the notion of the trinity is usually the Son, Christ. Again, there are two ways of approaching this problem, through philosophy and exegesis of the Bible. Through philosophy you may come to some notion of a finite creation separated from its infinite Creator and the question as to how to close that gap between two qualitatively different types of beings. The incarnation is one particularly appealing solution, and since it is testified to in the New Testament, appears to many Christians to be particularly powerful. From statements in the New Testament, most powerfully from John 1, it is understood that Christ is the expressed Logos, or spoken Word/reason/mind of God somehow enfleshed. It follows from the notion that there is but One God, that there must be some kind of profound unity between the creator God and this enfleshed Logos. There are a couple ways to do this, the easiest way mentally is through modalism/oneness theology, which states that God expresses himself through different modes of being- the father first, the son second and the holy ghost third. Hence, Jesus IS the father IS the holy ghost. That melding of persons into one person doesn’t prove satisfactory to all however, since through exegesis most Christians argue that Christ was a bonafide separate person from the Father (i.e. who was Jesus praying to when praying to the Father? It seems reasonable to assert it was a different person).

This is where it getes tricky and the doctrine of the trinity loses many well meaning people. How can you possibly assert that two separate persons are the same Being? Because recall, it was already established that there is only One God. The notion of personhood is a tricky enough one to begin with. What does it mean that youare a person when you are not made up of the same ’stuff’ one year to the next as your cells are created and destroyed? Is there a difference between a person and a being? Usually when we talk about personhood we mean a rational agent, and when we talk about being we describe qualities. To be a human being is to be a person with a mortal, finite body. To be a human being is to be a a person and a particular being in unity. But, what if there was a type of being which was unlimited, infinite, is it possible that multiple persons could share the exact same nature? Think about this for a second, part of being a human being is being finite and imperfect- separate, distinct. But if a rational agent has an infinite, immutable being, what’s to say that another rational agent, another person, could not share that exact same being of infinity? There can only be one such being- multiple, perfect infinites would actually overlap and become the exact same beings, they would overlay each other or become contradictions in terms- but why not have multiple persons be that being? From there comes the inclusion of the Holy Spirit as a third person to be the being of God. From what I can tell, the inclusion of the Holy Spirit is primarily due to exegesis from scripture.

Whether or not you agree with the above, I hope you realize that it isn’t just silly, impossible nonsense. It’s reasonable enough. Now how does that compare to the Mormon notion of the Godhead? Simple. The Mormon Godhead supposes that there are three beings which compose it, not just three persons in one being. This is made possible because deity in Mormonism is not infinite in the absolute sense. It is infinite only in a relative sense- in the same way that a large sheet might as well be infinite to a speck of dust. Therefore it is not contradiction in terms to assume that there can be multiple relatively infinite beings, it is only a problem if you suppose that there is an absolutely infinite being in existence.
 
Hi nebula,

Here’s part of the problem.
  1. Probably the majority of mainstream Christians are modalists, because they can’t understand what you just said.
  2. These young Mormon missionaries have been confronted by such people, and since that position is fairly understandable, they assume Modalism is the standard teaching. So they will often ask other Christians why Jesus prayed to himself, and so on. In other words, they point out Bible passages that indicate more than one person as God.
  3. Most mainstream Christians who know anything at all about Mormonism think we are run-of-the-mill polytheists. They don’t understand that we also have a concept of the Divine Unity, so it is ok for us to speak of one God or multiple gods. Both express some aspect of the Divine reality, for us.
  4. When talking to Mormon missionaries, these people will point out the monotheistic Bible passages.
  5. So the Mormons are talking about God being more than one person, reinforcing the others’ belief that they are run-of-the-mill polytheists. The other Christians are talking about there only being one God, reinforcing the Mormons’ belief that they are modalists, even if they are orthodox trinitarians.
  6. Everyone present might be perfectly ok with the ideas that God is “one” and “more than one” in different ways. They have no problem explaining all those proof-texts. So they argue past each other, and nobody comes out the wiser.
The fact is that the real issues between us are:

a) What is God?
b) How is God “one”?
c) How is God “more than one”?
 
I like this thread so far. I will wait a minute and reply when I see where it goes.
 
Joseph Ratzinger to the rescue:
St. Augustine once enshrined this idea in the following formula: “He is not called Father with reference to himself but only in relation to the Son; seen by himself he is simply God.” Here the decisive point comes beautifully to light. “Father” is purely a concept of relationship. Only in being-for the other is he Father; in his own being-in-himself he is simply God. Person is the pure relation of being-related, nothing else. *

Introduction to Christianity* 183
In other words, in Catholic theology, Father, Son and Holy Spirit are not separate individuals or “absolute” entities. Rather, the three are distinct relations – and **each **relation is identical with the divine essence.

In short, God *is *relation.

That’s another way of saying, “God is love” (1 John).
 
… But, what if there was a type of being which was unlimited, infinite, is it possible that multiple persons could share the exact same nature? Think about this for a second, part of being a human being is being finite and imperfect- separate, distinct. But if a rational agent has an infinite, immutable being, what’s to say that another rational agent, another person, could not share that exact same being of infinity? There can only be one such being- multiple, perfect infinites would actually overlap and become the exact same beings, they would overlay each other or become contradictions in terms- but why not have multiple persons be that being? From there comes the inclusion of the Holy Spirit as a third person to be the being of God. From what I can tell, the inclusion of the Holy Spirit is primarily due to exegesis from scripture.
Just to throw more wood on the fire, Mormons sometimes also appear to be modalists. There is much talk in D&C about the “Church of the Firstborn” in which Jesus is seen as the “Father of our salvation”. So where does that fit??

But this portion of your post bothers me:

" Think about this for a second, part of being a human being is being finite and imperfect- separate, distinct. But if a rational agent has an infinite, immutable being, what’s to say that another rational agent, another person, could not share that exact same being of infinity? There can only be one such being- multiple, perfect infinites would actually overlap and become the exact same beings, they would overlay each other or become contradictions in terms- but why not have multiple persons be that being? "

On one hand you say that such “there can only be one such being” and on the other hand “why not have multiple persons be that being.?”

It seems that this is the classical argument for " one being, three persons". So is this to be taken as an explanation of the classical position, or a new interpretation?

And of course as we know, I am going to have problems with what you mean by “being” and “person” which I can never seem to understand in the classical formulations. Too much Wittgenstein I guess.

But here’s another thing: if you can have two persons with one being, you can have three, as you say.

Why not four or an infinite number? Where’s the end?
 
Joseph Ratzinger to the rescue:
St. Augustine once enshrined this idea in the following formula: “He is not called Father with reference to himself but only in relation to the Son; seen by himself he is simply God.” Here the decisive point comes beautifully to light. “Father” is purely a concept of relationship. **Only in **being-for the other is he Father; in his own being-in-himself he is simply God. Person is the pure relation of being-related, nothing else. *

Introduction to Christianity* 183
In other words, in Catholic theology, Father, Son and Holy Spirit are not separate individuals or “absolute” entities. Rather, the three are distinct relations – and **each **relation is identical with the divine essence.

In short, God *is *relation.

That’s another way of saying, “God is love” (1 John).
I think the Augustine portion helps explain the Mormon modalism point of view I mentioned previously. I don’t know about the Ratzinger part.

Uh oh. I said I agreed with Augustine! 😉
 
Just to throw more wood on the fire, Mormons sometimes also appear to be modalists. There is much talk in D&C about the “Church of the Firstborn” in which Jesus is seen as the “Father of our salvation”. So where does that fit??

But this portion of your post bothers me:

" Think about this for a second, part of being a human being is being finite and imperfect- separate, distinct. But if a rational agent has an infinite, immutable being, what’s to say that another rational agent, another person, could not share that exact same being of infinity? There can only be one such being- multiple, perfect infinites would actually overlap and become the exact same beings, they would overlay each other or become contradictions in terms- but why not have multiple persons be that being? "

On one hand you say that such “there can only be one such being” and on the other hand “why not have multiple persons be that being.?”

It seems that this is the classical argument for " one being, three persons". So is this to be taken as an explanation of the classical position, or a new interpretation?

And of course as we know, I am going to have problems with what you mean by “being” and “person” which I can never seem to understand in the classical formulations. Too much Wittgenstein I guess.

But here’s another thing: if you can have two persons with one being, you can have three, as you say.

Why not four or an infinite number? Where’s the end?
mf,

The only reason there is 3 persons, as far as i can tell, is because of special revelation. In theory you could have more.

I like what Vincent said about relations, that seems to be what I am saying with the word ‘person’ but the word relation may make things clearer. Time to think about that.
 
Hi nebula,

Here’s part of the problem.
  1. Probably the majority of mainstream Christians are modalists, because they can’t understand what you just said.
  2. These young Mormon missionaries have been confronted by such people, and since that position is fairly understandable, they assume Modalism is the standard teaching. So they will often ask other Christians why Jesus prayed to himself, and so on. In other words, they point out Bible passages that indicate more than one person as God.
  3. Most mainstream Christians who know anything at all about Mormonism think we are run-of-the-mill polytheists. They don’t understand that we also have a concept of the Divine Unity, so it is ok for us to speak of one God or multiple gods. Both express some aspect of the Divine reality, for us.
  4. When talking to Mormon missionaries, these people will point out the monotheistic Bible passages.
  5. So the Mormons are talking about God being more than one person, reinforcing the others’ belief that they are run-of-the-mill polytheists. The other Christians are talking about there only being one God, reinforcing the Mormons’ belief that they are modalists, even if they are orthodox trinitarians.
  6. Everyone present might be perfectly ok with the ideas that God is “one” and “more than one” in different ways. They have no problem explaining all those proof-texts. So they argue past each other, and nobody comes out the wiser.
The fact is that the real issues between us are:

a) What is God?
b) How is God “one”?
c) How is God “more than one”?
bdawg,

All that is the ultimate point of my post in the first place, to clear things up. I think you’re right about a lot of Christians not understanding the trinity, but that’s not okay- that is and should be viewed as a problem. The way we conceptualize the basic nature of God reflects how we approach and interact with God. We ought to try to get it as right as we can.

So, it does make a difference if the idea is multiple beings who are Gods, that is, they have reached the station of God, or if we are talking about God as a qualitatively different other. Those are two separate concepts. Since traditional Christians, even those who incorrectly equate the trinity with modalism, believe in that latter conception of God, it is not the same as a Mormon (unless the Mormon is profoundly ignorant of Mormon theology) trying to uncover the oneness of mind and unity in the Godhead.
 
Just to throw more wood on the fire, Mormons sometimes also appear to be modalists. There is much talk in D&C about the “Church of the Firstborn” in which Jesus is seen as the “Father of our salvation”. So where does that fit??

But this portion of your post bothers me:

" Think about this for a second, part of being a human being is being finite and imperfect- separate, distinct. But if a rational agent has an infinite, immutable being, what’s to say that another rational agent, another person, could not share that exact same being of infinity? There can only be one such being- multiple, perfect infinites would actually overlap and become the exact same beings, they would overlay each other or become contradictions in terms- but why not have multiple persons be that being? "

On one hand you say that such “there can only be one such being” and on the other hand “why not have multiple persons be that being.?”

It seems that this is the classical argument for " one being, three persons". So is this to be taken as an explanation of the classical position, or a new interpretation?

And of course as we know, I am going to have problems with what you mean by “being” and “person” which I can never seem to understand in the classical formulations. Too much Wittgenstein I guess.

But here’s another thing: if you can have two persons with one being, you can have three, as you say.

Why not four or an infinite number? Where’s the end?
Can we put this scripture into the mix

John 17:21
21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
 
Yes, ronald, thanks. That there is God the Son incarnate in Christ makes sense and could even be arrived at through reason- to some extent. But, the addition of the Holy Spirit, as far as I can tell, must be arrived at through investigation of special revelation.
 
But here’s another thing: if you can have two persons with one being, you can have three, as you say.

Why not four or an infinite number? Where’s the end?
These two items from an earlier discussion on your specific question might help:
The reason God is a Trinity is because God is love. Love requires twoness, in fact threeness: the lover, the beloved, and the act, or relationship, of love between them. God is Trinity because God is love itself in its completeness.
The doctrine of the Trinity makes the most concrete and practical difference to our lives that can possibly be imagined. Because God is a Trinity, God is love. Because God is love, love is the supreme value. Because love is the supreme value, it is the meaning of our lives, for we are created in God’s image. The fact that God is a Trinity is the reason why love is the meaning of life and the reason why nothing makes us as happy as love: because that is inscribed in our design. . . .
The doctrine of the Trinity also tells us the nature of love. Love is altruistic, not egoistic. God is other-love because he has otherness within himself; he is more than one Person.
Pope John Paul II says: “God in his deepest mystery is not a solitude but a family, since he has in himself fatherhood, sonship, and the essence of the family, which is love.” The doctrine of the Trinity means that the family is not a mere sociological or biological human fact but “goes all the way up” into the nature of God.
But back to the Trinity. In the traditional manner of speaking, God has the faculties of intellect and will. The Word fully and completely expresses God’s knowing—knowing himself so fully that not even personhood is lacking in His knowledge. And the mutual love between Father and Son so fully expresses that act of the will that it is expressed fully and completely as a Person.
My own thought is that the act of knowing which generates the Son, and the act of love which spirates the Holy Spirit are so full and complete (as they must be) that no further generation or spiration is possible: it would in fact be a defect, indicating that something was incomplete in the original acts. And that would be impossible with God.
The entire thread can be read here:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=216694
 
Joseph Ratzinger to the rescue:
St. Augustine once enshrined this idea in the following formula: “He is not called Father with reference to himself but only in relation to the Son; seen by himself he is simply God.” Here the decisive point comes beautifully to light. “Father” is purely a concept of relationship. **Only in **being-for the other is he Father; in his own being-in-himself he is simply God. Person is the pure relation of being-related, nothing else. *

Introduction to Christianity* 183
In other words, in Catholic theology, Father, Son and Holy Spirit are not separate individuals or “absolute” entities. Rather, the three are distinct relations – and **each **relation is identical with the divine essence.

In short, God *is *relation.

That’s another way of saying, “God is love” (1 John).
Thank you for this, Vincent; it leads to an important point that there is (as St. Thomas Teaches) no number in God,
neither one nor three, as number exists only in material beings, and God is absolutely and infinitely spiritual or immaterial. God is absolutely simple, meaning He is not “one of a kind” of similar beings.

He is technically not really three persons literally either in a material sense of “three of a kind”; rather He Is Father and Son (a completely different Subject from the Father) and Holy Spirit (a Subject, absolutely different from the Father and/or the Son) in the absolutely Simple Divine Being of God.

If we have to say Three in regard to subject because of our limited minds, it is to be taken analogously (not literally, materially), to mean Absolutely different Subject of the Origin Father, from the Begotten Son, and the Holy Spirit spiritated from the Father and the Son. This is the Greatest Mystery.

(The belief that God is a material being is a notion that St. Thomas called succinctly most stupid in the Summa, a rare editorial comment for him.)
 
mf,

The only reason there is 3 persons, as far as i can tell, is because of special revelation. In theory you could have more.

I like what Vincent said about relations, that seems to be what I am saying with the word ‘person’ but the word relation may make things clearer. Time to think about that.
So just to stir the pot, let’s postulate that an infinite number of persons with one “being” is at least possible.
  1. Do these beings have to be infinite beings? Why or why not?
  2. Is there a point at which the whole thing breaks down and the word “being” makes no sense?
I strongly suspect that #2 will win the day.

Are dogs “beings”?

Snails?
Microbes?
Viruses?

Could viruses be an example of an nearly an “infinite” number of beings with one nature?

One of the problems with “relations” is that if a “relation” suddenly becomes a person (as in the discussion of the love between the father and the son becoming the Holy Spirit), and we all stand in some “relation” to God, do all those relations now also become persons?

I am really having a hard time with all this.

Do we just want to declare it a “mystery” and give up?

(You know I won’t let you do that!) 😉
 
Thank you for this, Vincent; it leads to an important point that there is (as St. Thomas Teaches) no number in God,
neither one nor three, as number exists only in material beings, and God is absolutely and infinitely spiritual or immaterial. God is absolutely simple, meaning He is not “one of a kind” of similar beings.

He is technically not really three persons literally either in a material sense of “three of a kind”; rather He Is Father and Son (a completely different Subject from the Father) and Holy Spirit (a Subject, absolutely different from the Father and/or the Son) in the absolutely Simple Divine Being of God.

If we have to say Three in regard to subject because of our limited minds, it is to be taken analogously (not literally, materially), to mean Absolutely different Subject of the Origin Father, from the Begotten Son, and the Holy Spirit spiritated from the Father and the Son. This is the Greatest Mystery.

(The belief that God is a material being is a notion that St. Thomas called succinctly most stupid in the Summa, a rare editorial comment for him.)
Excuses my lack of understanding BUT if God is without body, parts or passion and Jesus is with body, parts and passion how are you marrying the two ?
 
So just to stir the pot, let’s postulate that an infinite number of persons with one “being” is at least possible.
  1. Do these beings have to be infinite beings? Why or why not?
  2. Is there a point at which the whole thing breaks down and the word “being” makes no sense?
I strongly suspect that #2 will win the day.

Are dogs “beings”?

Snails?
Microbes?
Viruses?

Could viruses be an example of an nearly an “infinite” number of beings with one nature?

One of the problems with “relations” is that if a “relation” suddenly becomes a person (as in the discussion of the love between the father and the son becoming the Holy Spirit), and we all stand in some “relation” to God, do all those relations now also become persons?

I am really having a hard time with all this.

Do we just want to declare it a “mystery” and give up?

(You know I won’t let you do that!) 😉
mf,

The post seems off target. Are you confusing the word ‘person’ with ‘being’? Mortal, finite beings marry one person with one being. If there is infinite matter and infinite number of universes I suppose there cuold be an infinite number of these finite beings. What’s your point?

Thanks for the clarification.
 
Excuses my lack of understanding BUT if God is without body, parts or passion and Jesus is with body, parts and passion how are you marrying the two ?
Excuses my lack of understanding BUT if God is without body, parts or passion and Jesus is with body, parts and passion how are you marrying the two ?

Ronald, you touch here on the Hypostatic Union. Briefly put:
“The dogma asserts that there is in Christ a Person, who is the Divine Person of the Logos, and two natures, which belong to the One Divine Person. The human nature is assumed into the unity and dominion of the Divine Person, so that the Divine Person operates in the human nature and through the human nature, as its organ,” Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, Ludwig Ott.
The Man JESUS did not exist until the Incarnation; but as the Son of God He Is from all eternity. That is a change external to the Divine Person; iow, nothing of the Divine Person changed by virtue of the Incarnation; rather, it was Man who changed by being brought into friendship with God in and through the God-Man.

What needs to be seen in this is that the Incarnation did not need to be; and since it did not need to be, there was no necessary reason for the Son to have a body. But it is a necessity that He be the Son of God. Since He is the Word, the perfect Image of the Unique Father, likewise with the Father there is/was never a need for a body, since all possibilities, all realities, are reflected in the One, Perfect, Immaterial, Infinite Word; therefore the One Whose Perfect Image the Son is could not be composed of matter since the Incarnation was not a necessity; the Perfect Father did not require (neither for Himself nor from His Son or His Spirit) something more for further perfection.

So the Divinity of the Second Person of the Most Holy Trinity did not/does not change; iow, His Divinity is not in any manner altered or aided by the fact of His Incarnation as Man; it is, rather, man who is changed in Christ by our unity in the One Who has raised humanity in and through His Redemptive Death and Resurrection to participate in His Divinity by means of that Incarnation.

In speaking about the Incarnation and Risen Body of Our Lord Jesus Christ, we have to understand that His becoming Incarnate was pure condescension on His part, and not a necessity for His Being; i.e., the Divine Nature of the Son wasn’t/isn’t dependent on having a body for His Self-Existent Communion with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Second, what is true of the Divine Nature of One Person is true of the Others, since that Nature is One and Unique; therefore, none of the Persons requires a Body for Self-Existence. Third, Christ Jesus has two Natures, one Human, one Divine, not one; the Divine Nature when united to the Human Nature of Jesus Christ does not come into any sort of limitation in that Human Nature; His Divine Nature fills and fully informs the Human Nature, the Human Nature does not fill His Divine Nature.

This from St. Anselm:
“For we affirm that the Divine nature is beyond doubt impassible, and that God cannot at all be brought down from his exaltation, nor toil in anything which he wishes to effect. But we say that the Lord Jesus Christ is very God and very man, one person in two natures, and two natures in one person. When, therefore, we speak of God as enduring any humiliation or infirmity, we do not refer to the majesty of that nature, which cannot suffer; but to the feebleness of the human constitution which he assumed. And so there remains no ground of objection against our faith. For in this way we intend no debasement of the Divine nature, but we teach that one person is both Divine and human. In the incarnation of God there is no lowering of the Deity; but the nature of man we believe to be exalted.”
And this touches on our (man’s) graced ability now to rise to participate in the Divinity of Christ Who won for us our adoption in Him.

A book you should consider reading is Frank Sheed’s Theology for Beginners; his chapters on the Trinity and the Incarnation are very helpful in understanding Catholic theology on this Mystery.
 
I’ve discussed this with nebula before, but I’m going to take a crack at you Catholic guys (and nebula, too). Where was it ever revealed that God is “simple,” i.e., completely homogeneous and without parts? I know the Bible reveals that there is “one God,” and also calls three Persons “God,” but that seems to be a clear indication that “God” is NOT “simple.” Nebula would (I think) argue that the “general revelation” (i.e., various speculations based on pagan Greek philosophy) is where we get the idea that God is "simple. Frankly, I don’t buy that argument, so maybe someone can come up with an argument from the Bible?

This question is directly related to the problem of HOW God is “one.” The verse Ronald posted from John 17 (and surrounding verses) seems to indicate that we can be “one in” the Father and Son, “just as” the Son is one in the Father. In other words, the type of oneness we can have with God is the same kind of oneness that the persons of the Trinity have among themselves. You might argue that this statement is only true in a very limited sense, but if it’s limited anywhere, I’d like to see it. My guess is that we’re back to Plato, again.
 
I’ve discussed this with nebula before, but I’m going to take a crack at you Catholic guys (and nebula, too). Where was it ever revealed that God is “simple,” i.e., completely homogeneous and without parts? I know the Bible reveals that there is “one God,” and also calls three Persons “God,” but that seems to be a clear indication that “God” is NOT “simple.” Nebula would (I think) argue that the “general revelation” (i.e., various speculations based on pagan Greek philosophy) is where we get the idea that God is "simple. Frankly, I don’t buy that argument, so maybe someone can come up with an argument from the Bible?

This question is directly related to the problem of HOW God is “one.” The verse Ronald posted from John 17 (and surrounding verses) seems to indicate that we can be “one in” the Father and Son, “just as” the Son is one in the Father. In other words, the type of oneness we can have with God is the same kind of oneness that the persons of the Trinity have among themselves. You might argue that this statement is only true in a very limited sense, but if it’s limited anywhere, I’d like to see it. My guess is that we’re back to Plato, again.
What’s with the Mormon obsession with the word “speculation” and Plato? Every philosophical thought is now a platonic thought which is essentially satanic deception? I ain’t buying.

The Bible says that God is the creator of all things, including good and evil, the only God there is, is eternal, and is a spirit, and is ‘one God’. Hey, I didn’t make this stuff up. Are Mormons accusing Judaism of being influenced by satanic Platonism these days too? because last I heard Jews are fairly zealous of insisting that ‘our God is one’.
 
What’s with the Mormon obsession with the word “speculation” and Plato? Every philosophical thought is now a platonic thought which is essentially satanic deception? I ain’t buying.

The Bible says that God is the creator of all things, including good and evil, the only God there is, is eternal, and is a spirit, and is ‘one God’. Hey, I didn’t make this stuff up. Are Mormons accusing Judaism of being influenced by satanic Platonism these days too? because last I heard Jews are fairly zealous of insisting that ‘our God is one’.
Hi nebula,

You have told me yourself that the philosophical “proofs” about the nature of God are not bulletproof. And so it’s “speculation,” since I don’t agree with it.😉

As for Judaism, of course it’s been influenced by Greek philosophy, just as Christianity and Islam were. It’s quite well documented–just read the book quoted in my signature line. And then go read any commentary on Philo Judaeus.

So anyway, where does the Bible say God created good and evil? And where does it say what a spirit is? And where does it say how we should interpret the word, “eternal”? (To us, that just means God exists in eternity, where past, present, and future are all before him.) Where does it say HOW God is “one,” (besides John 17).

Just to throw in a monkeywrench on the point about God being “spirit,” here is a little article I wrote. Sorry if some of you have seen it before. (But not TOO sorry, because obviously you didn’t read it the first time if my brilliant logic failed to convince.:D)

God as Invisible Spirit

Although some people will admit that the ancient Israelites saw God as anthropomorphic, they qualify this by saying that by the time the New Testament was written, they had given up such primitive notions. In support of this position, they cite two types of passages that either say God is spiritual, or that He has never been seen. I believe there is good evidence that early Jewish Christians would have interpreted these passages in a manner consistent with Old Testament anthropomorphism.

I have already quoted the early Christian philosophers, Origen and Justin, saying that in the second and third centuries, the Jews and some Christians believed God had a body in human form. I also cited the Clementine Homilies, a second-century Jewish Christian document, which says God has a body in human form. A number of Jewish scholars have also pointed out that, in the Rabbinic period (ca. 70-500 A.D.) the Jewish teachers were mainly anthropomorphites. For example, Guy Stroumsa of Hebrew University says, “Jewish anthropomorphism seems to have been notorious in the first centuries C.E.” (Gedaliahu G. Stroumsa, 1983, “Form(s) of God: Some Notes on Metatron and Christ,” Harvard Theological Review 76, 269-288.) More quotations by these scholars have been collected in a very nice (but LARGE) article by LDS philosophy professor, Dave Paulson. (David L. Paulsen, 1996, “The Doctrine of Divine Embodiment: Restoration, Judeo-Christian, and Philosophical Perspectives, 35, 7-94. This article can be downloaded here. byustudies.byu.edu/Products/MoreInfoPage/MoreInfo.aspx?Type=7&ProdID=665)
God is Spirit

Mainstream Christians often object that the Bible says that “God is a Spirit” (John 4:24 KJV), but Mormons can make a couple points about this.

First, there is no indefinite article (a, an) in ancient Greek, so modern translations usually render this “God is Spirit,” in parallel with their rendering of a couple other such statements by John-- “God is light” (1 John 1:5), and “God is love” (1 John 4:8). (We wouldn’t say that God is “a light” or “a love.”)

Second, saying something is “spiritual” obviously did not mean that it is disembodied or incorporeal to the first Christians. Paul called the resurrection body “a spiritual body” (1 Cor. 15:44), but clearly he didn’t mean that it was incorporeal, because he also said that Christ would “change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body” (Phil. 3:21), and clearly Christ’s resurrection body was corporeal. “Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have” (Luke 24:39). Embodiment must have been important, because Paul continued his statement about Christ’s glorious body in Phil. 3:21, saying that it is because of this body that Christ can subdue all things! “…according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.” Anglican scholar Christopher Stead explains what it would have meant to a Hebrew mind to say that God is spiritual.
By saying that God is spiritual, we do not mean that he has no body . . . but rather that he is the source of a mysterious life-giving power and energy that animates the human body, and himself possesses this energy in the fullest measure. (Stead, Philosophy in Christian Antiquity, 98.)
Another Anglican historian (and Bishop of London,) J.W.C. Wand, explained that later Christians got the idea that spiritual things are necessarily incorporeal from Neoplatonism. “It is easy to see what influence this school of thought * must have had upon Christian leaders. It was from it that they learnt what was involved in a metaphysical sense by calling God a Spirit.” (J.W.C Wand, A History of the Early Church to A.D. 500, New York, Routledge, 1994, 140.) (Note: I would argue that they got the idea from Middle Platonism, and developed it further with Neoplatonism. Also, Tertullian believed God was a material substance, but not that the Father had a human form.)

*** cont’d in next post***
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