Trinity

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Jesus knows everything that the father knows right? The reason is because Mark 13:33 I think it is he says that only the father knows but the son doesnt. Was Christ just speaking in his human nature and not his divinity?
 
Jesus knows everything that the father knows right? The reason is because Mark 13:33 I think it is he says that only the father knows but the son doesnt. Was Christ just speaking in his human nature and not his divinity?
yes
 
One problem I get when I use an argument like that, that it was just His human nature, it makes it easy for them to retort that Mary is not the Mother of God, but rather the mother of His human nature.
 
One problem I get when I use an argument like that, that it was just His human nature, it makes it easy for them to retort that Mary is not the Mother of God, but rather the mother of His human nature.
How exactly can she be the mother of one half of a composite being? :confused: Even if the child is stillborn, whilst he was alive, he was a person fully, was he not?
 
Some commentaries of the early Church fathers on this passage:

Jerome: Having then shewn that the Son of God cannot be ignorant of the day of the consummation, we must now show a cause why He should be said to be ignorant. When after the resurrection He is demanded concerning this day by the Apostles, He answers more openly; “It is not for you to know the times or the seasons which the Father has put in his own power.” (@Ac 1,7@) Wherein He shews that Himself knows, but that it was not expedient for the Apostles to know, that being in uncertainty of the coming of their Judge, they should live every day as though they were to be judged that day.
BAug.,de Trin., i, 12: When He says here, “Knows not,” He means, ‘makes others not to know;’ i.e. He knew not then, so as to tell His disciples; as it was said to Abraham, “Now I know that thou fearest God;” (@Gn 22,19@) i.e. ‘Now have I caused that thou shouldest know,’ because by the temptation he came to know himself.
Aug.,\b Serm., 97, 1: That (p. 833) He says that the “Father knoweth,” implies that in the Father the Son also knows. For what can there be in time which was not made by the Word, seeing that time itself was made by the Word!
Aug.,\b Lib. 83, Quaest. Q60: That the Father alone knows may be well understood in the above-mentioned manner of knowing, that He makes the Son to know; but the Son is said not to know, because be does not make men to know.
Origen:\b Otherwise; So long as the Church which is Christ’s body knows not that day and hour, so long the Son Himself is said not to know that day and hour. The word “know” is used according to its proper usual meaning in Scripture. The Apostle speaks of Christ, as “him who knew no sin,” (@1Co 5,21@) i.e. sinned not. The knowledge of that day and hour the Son reserves in store for the fellow-heirs of the promise, that all may know at once, i.e. in the day when it shall come upon them, “what things God hath prepared for them that love him.” (@1Co 2,9@)
 
Jesus knows everything that the father knows right? The reason is because Mark 13:33 I think it is he says that only the father knows but the son doesnt. Was Christ just speaking in his human nature and not his divinity?
What Christ admitted he didn’t know, the same he said he didn’t come to reveal.
 
Others have noted: “13:32 Of that day and that hour, etc. When the Son was on earth in the flesh, he voluntarily subjected himself to limitations, among them ignorance of the hour when he would return again to judgment. If he voluntarily knew not, what folly of theologians to fix upon the time.”

This is another common argument I have come across, that God willed voluntarily to self-limitations upon His being and knowledge while on earth. I believe the argument for self-limitation is made by E.P. Sanders who used it to explain some of Jesus’ apocalyptic statements.
 
Another hypothesis:
  1. But of that day and that hour-that is, the precise time.
knoweth no man-literally, no one.

no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father-This very remarkable statement regarding “the Son” is peculiar to Mark. Whether it means that the Son was not at that time in possession of the knowledge referred to, or simply that it was not among the things which He had received to communicate-has been matter of much controversy even among the firmest believers in the proper Divinity of Christ. In the latter sense it was taken by some of the most eminent of the ancient Fathers, and by Luther, Melancthon, and most of the older Lutherans; and it is so taken by Bengel, Lange, Webster and Wilkinson, Chrysostom and others understood it to mean that as man our Lord was ignorant of this. It is taken literally by Calvin, Grotius, De Wette, Meyer, Fritzsche, Stier, Alford, and Alexander.
 
The Second person of the Triunity knew the mind of the Father. All that the Father has the Son has in like manner.

St. Athanasius says that the Word of God still ordered the universe while weilding his mortal body as an instrument: example the way in which Jesus is able to be present everywhere, not confined to a body like we appear to be. Jesus came to fulfill the Sacrifice of Christ but another reason; Jesus’ life was a manifestation of our instruction and it was not part of our instruction to know the return in Glory.
 
what could sum it up would be that in his human nature he did not know but in his divinity he did know. That is not to seperate his human nature and divinity. He was true God and true man.
 
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