S
SDDM
Guest
Dear CAF,
I’m struggling too understand why the OT often refers to God punishing the sinfulness of the Israelites. It is Catholic moral theology (or is it philosophy?) that states that God cannot ever actively will evil because that would be a contradiction to his nature. However, the OT (in English) states many times that God will punish Israel for us sins (see Leviticus ~25/26). Is there something that the vernacular is lacking that can be seen in the Hebrew or Latin vulgate? I realize this is a “the problem with evil post” but I’m looking for a scripture based reason. If I can’t explain it to myself, how can I explain it to others? If this has already been answered please kindly direct mgr to the post.
God bless.
Sic Deus Dilexit Mundum
I’m struggling too understand why the OT often refers to God punishing the sinfulness of the Israelites. It is Catholic moral theology (or is it philosophy?) that states that God cannot ever actively will evil because that would be a contradiction to his nature. However, the OT (in English) states many times that God will punish Israel for us sins (see Leviticus ~25/26). Is there something that the vernacular is lacking that can be seen in the Hebrew or Latin vulgate? I realize this is a “the problem with evil post” but I’m looking for a scripture based reason. If I can’t explain it to myself, how can I explain it to others? If this has already been answered please kindly direct mgr to the post.
God bless.
Sic Deus Dilexit Mundum