Two questions about troubled marriage

[MainBrain]

I have two questions about a troubled marriage.

1. 
   *]If a Catholic husband divorces a Protestant wife, and they were not married in the Catholic Church, can the Catholic husband still receive communion?
   
   1. 
      *]Is this the solution to a troubled marriage? The Bible says "Husbands love your wife as Christ loves the church… since Christ suffered so, and the church as brought him shame, so the husband should suffer at the hands of an unloving wife? I know scripture verses that say the each body belongs to the spouse and they should not deny the other, but if the wife does not want to have a sexual relationship with the husband, the husband should suffer through the marriage anyway? Or is it grounds for divorce? What if the wife has no love and no respect for her husband? He should still love her as Christ loved the church for Christ suffered for the church… Does this sound right? What if the husband is being destroyed in a sexless, loveless marriage…

 

[1ke]

You need to take these troubles to your priest for spiritual counsel.

The priest can advise you on the status of your marriage in the Church. “Not married in a Catholic Church” can mean a lot of things. Whether or not the marriage is valid at all depends on whether the Catholic received the correct dispensation from form.

As to divorce and communion, depending upon the reason for the divorce the party may or may not be in a state of sin requiring confession. But, no, a person is not barred from communion after divorce. If you are under that impression, again, go talk to your priest.

And your priest can counsel you on the serious issues you face in your marriage. You can also look for a Catholic counselor to help you work through these emotions you are feeling.

These are not the “yes or no” questions you want them to be.

 

[Xantippe]

You need to take these troubles to your priest for spiritual counsel.

The priest can advise you on the status of your marriage in the Church. “Not married in a Catholic Church” can mean a lot of things. Whether or not the marriage is valid at all depends on whether the Catholic received the correct dispensation from form.

As to divorce and communion, depending upon the reason for the divorce the party may or may not be in a state of sin requiring confession. But, no, a person is not barred from communion after divorce. If you are under that impression, again, go talk to your priest.

And your priest can counsel you on the serious issues you face in your marriage. You can also look for a Catholic counselor to help you work through these emotions you are feeling.

These are not the “yes or no” questions you want them to be.

Yes.

The OP may also find this helpful:

juliagrey.wordpress.com/

It’s a website entitled (very helpfully) “Why Your Wife Won’t Have Sex With You.”

Have a look at the index at the left side of the page. You’ll see such possibilities as disgust, discomfort, distraction, boredom, anger, insecurity, fat, etc.

In fact, come to think of it, once you have a good look at that website, it might be a good idea to invite your wife to look at it and see if anything there resonates with her.

 

[truetofaith]

Were they married in a Protestant Church or were they married by a justice of the peace? This could affect if they were validly married.

Before receiving communion, the husband should seek advice from the parish priest to receive advice & absolution, if required.

 

[Xantippe]

Here’s a quote from Julia Grey:

“Think of your wife’s sexual interest in you after you get married like a car windshield. With each spatter and bit of dirt thrown up from the road of life, her view of you gets dimmer, uglier and less interesting. The two major sources of road grime are “Anger” and “Boredom“, although the other factors I’ve mentioned in this blog, like “Disgust” and “Distraction“, etc. also play a role.”

I don’t agree with everything Julia Grey says, but it’s a fantastic resource.

 

[1ke]

Were they married in a Protestant Church or were they married by a justice of the peace? This could affect if they were validly married.

Actually, not.

If dispensed from form, there is no distinction of “in a protestant church” or “justice of the peace”. Either would be valid.

If not dispensed from form, then it doesn’t matter whether it was a protestant church, JOP, or other, it is not valid.