Two reactions to "I AM" in the Gospel

[MarcoPG]

The Jewish canon was closed around the time of the completion of the 2nd Temple.

Exactly. However if you mean by closed that no other books were to be added after (roughly) 515 BC, well, no. Or, please clarify your argument.

 

[Seraphim73]

Exactly. However if you mean by closed that no other books were to be added after (roughly) 515 BC, well, no. Or, please clarify your argument.

Even if the canon was closed there were certainly variations in the text. The Dead Sea Scrolls help demonstrate that. When did the Hebrew text settle on its current form?

 

[MarcoPG]

Seraphim, yes, that would be a good thing to know. It is said to be between 200 BC and 200 AD, that the Tanakh as we know it was compiled in a definitive way.

 

[tanachanswers]

Exactly. However if you mean by closed that no other books were to be added after (roughly) 515 BC, well, no. Or, please clarify your argument.

It was closed around 349 bce. and not other books were added.

 

[tanachanswers]

Even if the canon was closed there were certainly variations in the text. The Dead Sea Scrolls help demonstrate that. When did the Hebrew text settle on its current form?

The dead sea scrolls are of no value.

1. Some were obviously written by apprentice.
2. They were very similar to the Reform Jews of today, so they did not care about the Laws that has kept Orthodox scrolls accurate.
3. They examples of their scribes editing the scrolls to clarify them, in the eyes of the copyists. This is something unheard of in Orthodox Judaism.

Now, you might ask why i keep referring Orthodox Judaism ? It’s quite simple, of all of the forms/branches of Judaism, only the Orthodox are still in existence, hence G-d has already passed judgment on them.

 

[Seraphim73]

The dead sea scrolls are of no value.

1. Some were obviously written by apprentice.
2. They were very similar to the Reform Jews of today, so they did not care about the Laws that has kept Orthodox scrolls accurate.
3. They examples of their scribes editing the scrolls to clarify them, in the eyes of the copyists. This is something unheard of in Orthodox Judaism.

Now, you might ask why i keep referring Orthodox Judaism ? It’s quite simple, of all of the forms/branches of Judaism, only the Orthodox are still in existence, hence G-d has already passed judgment on them.

That’s begging the question. Who was the authority that standardized the texts and why did that authority allow translations such as the Septuagint to be used so widely for so long?

 

[MarcoPG]

It would be hard to confirm that the Anshei Knesset Ha Gedolah was seen as the only authority, even back then. Otherwise, would it have taken 500 more years to settle the issue (Jamnia)?
And in 1 AD, there were Zealots and Sadducees all over the place. So, as Seraphim simply asked, why the Septuagint?

 

[tanachanswers]

That’s begging the question. Who was the authority that standardized the texts and why did that authority allow translations such as the Septuagint to be used so widely for so long?

The Orthodox Jews were the ones that had the authority to standardize the canon of the Jewish bible through the Pharisee Sanhedrin.

The LXX was ordered by the Greek king after Alexander Christ, under pain of death. It is no longer extant.

No one knows who translated the present LXX.

 

[tanachanswers]

It would be hard to confirm that the Anshei Knesset Ha Gedolah was seen as the only authority, even back then. Otherwise, would it have taken 500 more years to settle the issue (Jamnia)?
And in 1 AD, there were Zealots and Sadducees all over the place. So, as Seraphim simply asked, why the Septuagint?

For almost two hundred years there were two Sanedrins:
the Sadducee Sanhedrin and the Pharisee Sanhedrin.

Iesus was taken in front of the Sadducee Sanhedrin, which is obvious as they met during the Festival of Unleavened Bread.

The Pharisee Sanhedrin moved out of the Temple in the year 29 ce because it was obvious that the Temple was to be destroyed.

In Yamnia it was merely the writing down the discussion so that the knowledge would not be lost.

 

[MarcoPG]

For almost two hundred years there were two Sanedrins:
the Sadducee Sanhedrin and the Pharisee Sanhedrin.

Iesus was taken in front of the Sadducee Sanhedrin, which is obvious as they met during the Festival of Unleavened Bread.

The Pharisee Sanhedrin moved out of the Temple in the year 29 ce because it was obvious that the Temple was to be destroyed.

In Yamnia it was merely the writing down the discussion so that the knowledge would not be lost.

Why had the Jews in Palestine, and only them, authority over Scripture? Because they were in Israel?

If Jamnia was to write down the discussion, it means that in the 1st Century, there was this discussion, about 450 years after the Canon was closed. Why?

Also, i think that we should make another thread about it. It would be bad for future searches if people look for information about I AM and read on the Jewish Canon. It is somehow connected, but now we are out of topic. Do you wish to continue discussing elsewhere (thread, pm)?