I admit, I’m genuinely puzzled by this thread. I read over & over how important it is to have the single head, how he can exercise his universal jurisdiction at any time, over any church, without question, etc, etc. So isn’t this a case of him opting to take a specific action (this meeting/declaration) on his own terms…and isn’t he entitled to do so?
The reason I ask is, I read fairly often a rebuttal to the Orthodox concerns regarding “supreme universal jurisdiction” that, "Oh, well just because the Pope can exercise his supreme immediate jurisdiction at any time over anyone/thing, of course he wouldn’t.
And yet, in this case, he chose not to include (at whatever level, it’s not clear to me if/when the UGCC etc might have been involved currently/historically) relevant participants, and now they’re voicing unhappiness in public.
Isn’t that basically “what you get”, if you go with the Supreme Pontiff model?
As a follow up - what standing does the Joint Declaration have, on the Catholic side? It doesn’t say “declare, announce” or whatever the required language might be for an “infallible” thing. But it was personally signed by the Pope…so arguably it must be binding somehow? I would like to understand how the document is seen “officially” within the Catholic church. (Father Ruggero, is this something you have experience with?)
Thank you for any insights you can share.