M
mardukm
Guest
Dear non-Catholic brethren,
Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 are the verses non-Catholics use to justify divorce and remarriage if one spouse commits adultery.
But the verses do not say “anyone who divorces his wife, except for adultery, and marries another commits adultery.”
It states that “anyone who divorces his wife, except for UNCHASTITY, and marries another commits adultery.”
Catholic exegetes have pointed out that this clause “except for unchastity” is unique to Matthew’s gospel because Matthew’s gospel was written to Jews (the other Gospels who repeat this verse do not contain the clause “except for unchastity,” but are straight up prohibitions against divorce and remarriage - to be clear, not divorce, but divorce AND remarriage). The Jewish marriage rite consists of a period of betrothal (wherein the fiancees are expected to remain CHASTE and faithful to each other) and then the actual marriage. Thus, the verse points to the fact that if a betrothed woman commits unchastity (fornication, according to some translations) during the betrothal period, then the betrothed man can divorce her. It is not, contrary to the interpretation of non-Catholics, a prescription for a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person to divorce and remarry.
My question is, how do non-Catholics account for the difference in the words “unchastity” and “adultery” in the verse? If Jesus actually meant that a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person can divorce their spouse and marry another in the case of adultery, why did not Jesus use the word “adultery” instead of “unchastity/fornication” in the clause “except for unchastity/fornication?”
I hope to get (name removed by moderator)ut not just from my Protestant brethren, but from my Orthodox brethren as well.
Blessings,
Marduk
Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 are the verses non-Catholics use to justify divorce and remarriage if one spouse commits adultery.
But the verses do not say “anyone who divorces his wife, except for adultery, and marries another commits adultery.”
It states that “anyone who divorces his wife, except for UNCHASTITY, and marries another commits adultery.”
Catholic exegetes have pointed out that this clause “except for unchastity” is unique to Matthew’s gospel because Matthew’s gospel was written to Jews (the other Gospels who repeat this verse do not contain the clause “except for unchastity,” but are straight up prohibitions against divorce and remarriage - to be clear, not divorce, but divorce AND remarriage). The Jewish marriage rite consists of a period of betrothal (wherein the fiancees are expected to remain CHASTE and faithful to each other) and then the actual marriage. Thus, the verse points to the fact that if a betrothed woman commits unchastity (fornication, according to some translations) during the betrothal period, then the betrothed man can divorce her. It is not, contrary to the interpretation of non-Catholics, a prescription for a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person to divorce and remarry.
My question is, how do non-Catholics account for the difference in the words “unchastity” and “adultery” in the verse? If Jesus actually meant that a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person can divorce their spouse and marry another in the case of adultery, why did not Jesus use the word “adultery” instead of “unchastity/fornication” in the clause “except for unchastity/fornication?”
I hope to get (name removed by moderator)ut not just from my Protestant brethren, but from my Orthodox brethren as well.
Blessings,
Marduk