Unchastity vs. Adultery and remarriage

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mardukm

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Dear non-Catholic brethren,

Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 are the verses non-Catholics use to justify divorce and remarriage if one spouse commits adultery.

But the verses do not say “anyone who divorces his wife, except for adultery, and marries another commits adultery.”

It states that “anyone who divorces his wife, except for UNCHASTITY, and marries another commits adultery.”

Catholic exegetes have pointed out that this clause “except for unchastity” is unique to Matthew’s gospel because Matthew’s gospel was written to Jews (the other Gospels who repeat this verse do not contain the clause “except for unchastity,” but are straight up prohibitions against divorce and remarriage - to be clear, not divorce, but divorce AND remarriage). The Jewish marriage rite consists of a period of betrothal (wherein the fiancees are expected to remain CHASTE and faithful to each other) and then the actual marriage. Thus, the verse points to the fact that if a betrothed woman commits unchastity (fornication, according to some translations) during the betrothal period, then the betrothed man can divorce her. It is not, contrary to the interpretation of non-Catholics, a prescription for a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person to divorce and remarry.

My question is, how do non-Catholics account for the difference in the words “unchastity” and “adultery” in the verse? If Jesus actually meant that a MARRIED (i.e., not merely betrothed) person can divorce their spouse and marry another in the case of adultery, why did not Jesus use the word “adultery” instead of “unchastity/fornication” in the clause “except for unchastity/fornication?”

I hope to get (name removed by moderator)ut not just from my Protestant brethren, but from my Orthodox brethren as well.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
I hope one of our non-Catholic Christian members can offer some insight to include in this thread.

Blessings
 
As a Catachumen entering the Catholic church, I feel I can answer this. What we have here is an issue of translation and interpreting said translation. Admittedly I don’t know the bible as well as I should, however, I’ve learned from my sojourn here at CAF that it is often how a person individually views things that determines their own course of action. In the Catholic church we have the Magisterium to help guide and approve or disapprove of official writings. However, our Christian brethern utilize Sola Scriptura alone. Thus, opening up the door to self interpretation of the Bible. That is then compounded by the fact that there are many different editions of the bible so one may pick and choose which one they would like to follow.
So in essence, the problem originates NOT solely with the individual but with those who make translations of the Bible. If an editor doesn’t like the way something is written they change it.
Now I hate to say it but if the poster wanted to make this an issue of adultery among non-catholics they must also be aware that Catholics also get around the adultery issue simply by having a civil ceremony in place of a marriage in the church. This is not to demean the Church simply its to lessen the authority of the church over the marriage. Thus, its about control. If that makes any sense.
 
Dear non-Catholic brethren
Obviously I’m not one of them, but…
My question is, how do non-Catholics account for the difference in the words “unchastity” and “adultery” in the verse?
In my experience, they tend to say that within the context of marriage “unchastity” is just another word for “adultery.” (Like when a person uses a thesaurus to avoid using the same word twice in near proximity.)

I don’t agree with this reading, but this is what I’ve heard when discussing the passage.
 
In my experience, they tend to say that within the context of marriage “unchastity” is just another word for “adultery.” (Like when a person uses a thesaurus to avoid using the same word twice in near proximity.)
I’ve heard the same thing from my husband’s family. They’re Church of God, though I’m not sure if all Church of God churches believe as they do. But, some relatives tend to think that divorce and remarriage is perfectly okay as long as have Jesus in your heart. 🤷
 
Dear brother aspirant,
In my experience, they tend to say that within the context of marriage “unchastity” is just another word for “adultery.” (Like when a person uses a thesaurus to avoid using the same word twice in near proximity.)
Thank you for the response. I am familiar with that rationale, and it is not convincing at all. I was hoping our non-Catholic brethren could offer a more solid response.

I am also wondering why the book of Matthew contains the clause, “except for unchastity/fornication” and the other books do not.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
I am also wondering why the book of Matthew contains the clause, “except for unchastity/fornication” and the other books do not.
I entertain a theory on the matter, but I’ll leave more responses to non-Catholics. 🙂
 
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