Understanding 2 Corinthians 5:21

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Hello,
Can someone help me to understand the church’s teaching on 2 Corinthians 5:21? Specifically, in my protestant church it is used to teach double imputation, that once we put our faith in Christ when God sees us he no longer sees our sin, but sees Christ’s all of Christ’s righteousness. Essentially, God no longer sees us, but sees Jesus. How should I understand this scripture?

Thanks for your help!
 
Hello,
Can someone help me to understand the church’s teaching on 2 Corinthians 5:21? Specifically, in my protestant church it is used to teach double imputation, that once we put our faith in Christ when God sees us he no longer sees our sin, but sees Christ’s all of Christ’s righteousness. Essentially, God no longer sees us, but sees Jesus. How should I understand this scripture?

Thanks for your help!
Hi.

One thing to help you understand Scripture, as Catholics do, is to read the complete chapter of a book. The Bible was never meant for us to use a single verse to gain a complete meaning of Christ and God.

That said, see the same book of Corinthians, with interpretations and footnotes to aid you, at this link, for you to study and understand how we interpret it.

We do see Christ’s sacrifice as an infinitely available atonement for sin. However, in order for us to receive this atonement, we must acknowledge and confess of grave (mortal) sins that damage our grace with God. In other words, Christ created a gateway for us to be saved, but we still must continually follow in his behavior to receive it.
 
[BIBLEDRB]2 Corinthians 5:21[/BIBLEDRB]

“For our sake he made the sinless one a victim for sin, so that in him we might become the uprightness of God.”

The spotless one, Christ, became sin for us and suffered the penalty for sin so that we might be saved.
 
Thanks, Spencerian. I like the way you explained atonement as a gateway, which makes light in the understanding of “narrow is the path.”

I guess my sticking point is how is righteousness understood? The way Protestants look at this scripture righteousness is understood as all of the good deeds of Christ being credited to us. So righteousness is seen as not only a lack of sin, but the positive actions of Jesus.

Do Catholics read this primarily as the forgiveness of sins, but not gaining credit for the positive actions of Jesus? Or maybe do Catholics believe with the caveat of we are credited for his righteousness (in the end at least) when we actually work our own righteousness (by God’s grace)?
 
The Father has opened the door to heaven, with the key being Christ. We still have to walk through.
 
Christ was not made sin…but a “sin offering*”…which means our sins are still seen…by The Father…but He also sees our sin offering…Christ…who paid the penalty for our sins…which then…and then only…makes God’s gift of righteousness available to us through God’s grace and our cooperation/free will acceptance of His grace…leading us to accept His further gift of faith…a faith that is living… demonstrated by our works of charity…spiritual, temporal and corporal.
  • In the ***Ignatius Catholic Bible, New Testament, Second Catholic Edition RVS ***…(pg 320)…Scott Hahn notes that Paul uses an Old Testament Greek idiom where the word “sin” means “sin offering” [Lev 4:21, 5:12, 6:25 as well as Isa 53:10]
Hope this helpful.
Pax Christi
 
Hello,
Can someone help me to understand the church’s teaching on 2 Corinthians 5:21? Specifically, in my protestant church it is used to teach double imputation, that once we put our faith in Christ when God sees us he no longer sees our sin, but sees Christ’s all of Christ’s righteousness. Essentially, God no longer sees us, but sees Jesus. How should I understand this scripture?

Thanks for your help!
Consider 2 Cor 5:9-10:
9So we make it our goal to please him, whether we are at home in the body or away from it. 10For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each of us may receive what is due us for the things done while in the body, whether good or bad.

Like many verses in scripture these verses exhort believers to recognize their obligation to do their part in growing in and maintaing their righteousness, even though it’s a gift of God to begin with. In light of such verses we understand 2 Cor 5:21 to mean that Christs righteousness becomes ours as our sins are forgiven and then we must do our part in cooperating with God in maintaing this righteousness. And this explains why Jesus didn’t say to the woman caught in adultery, “Your sins are forgiven, go, and have a nice life.” 🙂
 
… we must do our part in cooperating with God in maintaing this righteousness.
Interesting. Maybe I’m reading into what you are saying, but can are you implying that we do have the same righteous account of Christ (at least at some point)? Like maybe we have it at the moment of a sincere confession, and then it is ours to make tangible in our works? When we sin we then lose it?
 
Interesting. Maybe I’m reading into what you are saying, but can are you implying that we do have the same righteous account of Christ (at least at some point)? Like maybe we have it at the moment of a sincere confession, and then it is ours to make tangible in our works? When we sin we then lose it?
Sanctifying grace is restored to man at baptism according to Catholic doctrine. This sacrament is our first response of faith, through which man is born again, water and spirit. At this point man is considered to have full righteousness infused in him. However, concupiscence, our struggle with sin, remains. As we turn to God, reversing within ouselves the decision Adam & Eve made, we can also turn away from Him again.
 
2 Corinthains 5:21 is a general reference to animal sacrifice as practiced by Old Testament Jews, and a direct reference to the prophecy in Isaiah 53.

For our sake he made him to be sin who did not know sin, so that we might become the righteousness of God in him. (2 Corinthains 5:21)

When a sin offering was made in the Old Testament, the priest and penitent would lay hands on the anmial and pray, transferring the sin of the penitent to the animal, who would then die in place of the penitent who transgressed the covenant. Remember that the Bible is a Jewish book, and we have to always read it in light of the Jewish culture and religion which produced it. The covenant was everything to the Jews, and transgression of the covenant demaned death as a punishment. Animal sacrifice was a way to satisfy the demands of the covenant and thereby save the sinner from a death sentance.

1 Corinthians 5:21 is a direct reference to the writings of the prophet Isaiah, who said that a man would come to “Become sin” for us, just like the animals who “Became sin” through the laying on of hands during a sin offering. In doing so, this man would save us from the death sentance.

*We had all gone astray like sheep,
all following our own way;
But the LORD laid upon him
the guilt of us all
.

Though harshly treated, he submitted
and did not open his mouth;
Like a lamb led to slaughter
or a sheep silent before shearers,
he did not open his mouth.

Seized and condemned, he was taken away.
Who would have thought any more of his destiny?
For he was cut off from the land of the living,
struck for the sins of his people.

He was given a grave among the wicked,
a burial place with evildoers,
Though he had done no wrong,
nor was deceit found in his mouth
(Isaiah 53:6-9)*

Being “Struck for the sins of the people” was a reference to the knife - a small sword really - used to slaughter the large animals such as goats, lambs and bulls. Peter the Pope references the same prophecy of Isaiah.

For to this you have been called, because Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example that you should follow in his footsteps.
“He committed no sin,
and no deceit was found in his mouth.”
When he was insulted, he returned no insult; when he suffered, he did not threaten; instead, he handed himself over to the one who judges justly.

(1 Peter 2:21-23)


John makes many references to Jesus being the perfect sacrificial lamb of the sin offering.

The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world. (John 1:29)

The idea that God looks at our sin and sees Jesus instead is very simplistic theology with little basis in scripture. At a minimum, it barely goes far enough.

In this is love, not that we loved God but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the expiation for our sins. (1 John 4:10)

Jesus is expiation for our sins. Expiation is atonement, making ammends, extinguishing guilt. A Jew’s sins could be expiated through animal sacrifice, but any Jew knew that if he sinned again - transgressed the covenant - he had to make another sin offering, at great expense and effort, often traveling many miles to the temple in Jerusalem and slaughtering an expensive animal. If you didn’t repent, you had to keep coming back or be known as a sinner, eventually being put ouside of the community or sentanced to death.

The same is true for us. We have to apply the expation of our sins in the confessional and repent. We place ourselves with the reprobate, “Outside the camp”, if we don’t repent.

-Tim-
 
At this point man is considered to have full righteousness infused in him. However, concupiscence, our struggle with sin, remains. As we turn to God, reversing within ouselves the decision Adam & Eve made, we can also turn away from Him again.
So then we would have the righteousness of Christ but our entanglement with sin would lessen that righteousness, which by God’s grace, can be restored through sanctification in this life and ultimately in purgatory?
 
Jesus is expiation for our sins. Expiation is atonement, making ammends, extinguishing guilt. A Jew’s sins could be expiated through animal sacrifice, but any Jew knew that if he sinned again - transgressed the covenant - he had to make another sin offering, at great expense and effort, often traveling many miles to the temple in Jerusalem and slaughtering an expensive animal. If you didn’t repent, you had to keep coming back or be known as a sinner, eventually being put ouside of the community or sentanced to death.

The same is true for us. We have to apply the expation of our sins in the confessional and repent. We place ourselves with the reprobate, “Outside the camp”, if we don’t repent.

-Tim-
Thanks. That is helpful about applying the sins. My understanding of double imputation has been that if sin represents chalk and our record before God is a chalkboard then the chalk won’t leave a mark (God doesn’t see our sin) . You are saying the chalk leaves a mark, but we just need to ask Jesus to erase it everytime we leave a mark.
 
So then we would have the righteousness of Christ but our entanglement with sin would lessen that righteousness, which by God’s grace, can be restored through sanctification in this life and ultimately in purgatory?
Yes, by Gods grace and our cooperation with it. It’s impossible to be saved without God and yet He won’t save us without us. Ultimately He’s after restoring His creation to the heights from which it fell. No sinners enter heaven, as scripture attests to.
 
Hello,
Can someone help me to understand the church’s teaching on 2 Corinthians 5:21? Specifically, in my protestant church it is used to teach double imputation, that once we put our faith in Christ when God sees us he no longer sees our sin, but sees Christ’s all of Christ’s righteousness. Essentially, God no longer sees us, but sees Jesus. How should I understand this scripture?

Thanks for your help!
2Corinthians 5
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.


O Dear Kooper, Christ Himself died on the cross, and He is no sin and innocent; still He died for us, and so He give us a chance we might become righteousness. otherwise we even do not have chance to become righteousness. there the Redeemer, kind and merciful.
 
Hello,
Can someone help me to understand the church’s teaching on 2 Corinthians 5:21? Specifically, in my protestant church it is used to teach double imputation, that once we put our faith in Christ when God sees us he no longer sees our sin, but sees Christ’s all of Christ’s righteousness. Essentially, God no longer sees us, but sees Jesus. How should I understand this scripture?

Thanks for your help!
A couple of things to consider:
  1. ινα 'ημεις γενωμεθα δικαιοσυνη θεου εν αυτω is as non-specific about time in Greek as ‘that we might become the righteousness of God in Him’ is in English. Rather than saying that what he did has *already *made us righteous, it says that what he did has made righteousness *possible *for us. It is a necessary condition of righteous, but is not described here as a sufficient condition.
  2. Look at the next verse, and the next chapter. Paul talks about the possibility of ‘receiving God’s Grace in vain’, i.e. somehow wasting this opportunity (v1), makes an appeal for sympathy based in his and Timothy’s sufferings (vv2-10), and then asks the Corinthians to separate themselves from those who would separate them from God. So, the ‘cooperation with God’s Grace’ mentioned in this thread is right there in chapter 6.
 
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