S
sheilak
Guest
Our Bible study group read Mark 2:1-12 and John 9.
Jesus states that the disability/disease of the person was not caused by their sin or by their parents’ sin. In light of that, does that mean that all “afflictions” (disease/disability/condition) are not caused by sin of the person or their parents? Or was he referring specifically to these two people?
While we realize that we are not to judge some one as sinful or that it was their or an ancestor’s sin that caused a disease/disability/condition, we could not come to an understanding on the relation of sin to disease/disability/condition.
Some of us thought that some disease and disability was never caused by your or your ancestors sins, yet some thought that sins of the parents could be visited on the children………(say meth-use, alcoholism, AIDS, cigarette, etc)…………That it is a sin that sometimes may cause a disease, disability in, say, their unborn children.
Can anyone clarify the relationship?
Jesus states that the disability/disease of the person was not caused by their sin or by their parents’ sin. In light of that, does that mean that all “afflictions” (disease/disability/condition) are not caused by sin of the person or their parents? Or was he referring specifically to these two people?
While we realize that we are not to judge some one as sinful or that it was their or an ancestor’s sin that caused a disease/disability/condition, we could not come to an understanding on the relation of sin to disease/disability/condition.
Some of us thought that some disease and disability was never caused by your or your ancestors sins, yet some thought that sins of the parents could be visited on the children………(say meth-use, alcoholism, AIDS, cigarette, etc)…………That it is a sin that sometimes may cause a disease, disability in, say, their unborn children.
Can anyone clarify the relationship?