Unfaithful in Marriage

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Nick003

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In Matthew, it states:

“It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife
must give her a certificate of divorce.’ But I tell you
that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital
unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress,
and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits
adultery.

I would like some help clarifying this:

Does this mean that if a man cheats on his wife and, it results in a divorce, that she is NOT committing adultery in her next relationship because she is in a new relationship as a result of his infidelity?
 
Nick003 said:
In Matthew, it states:

“It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife
must give her a certificate of divorce.’ But I tell you
that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital
unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress,
and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits
adultery.

I would like some help clarifying this:

Does this mean that if a man cheats on his wife and, it results in a divorce, that she is NOT committing adultery in her next relationship because she is in a new relationship as a result of his infidelity?
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Well, part of your problem is the translation of the Book of Matthew that you are using. The exception clause is not regarding marital unfaithfulness but rather about an unlawful marriage between the “husband” and the “wife”.

Check out the passage and the notes here
 
SMHW said:
Well, part of your problem is the translation of the Book of Matthew that you are using. The exception clause is not regarding marital unfaithfulness but rather about an unlawful marriage between the “husband” and the “wife”.

Check out the passage and the notes here
Click to expand...
The version I use, uses the word “fornication”, in this context, is it referring to an unlawful marriage as you state?
 
johnnyt3000 said:
The version I use, uses the word “fornication”, in this context, is it referring to an unlawful marriage as you state?
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It could be since an “unlawful marriage” (e.g. one permitted by the Roman civil law but not by Jewish law) might be considered fornication.
 
The King James version reads as follows:

Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a
writing of divorcement: {5:32} But I say unto you, That
whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of
fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever
shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

I get the same message from this version as well. Thoughts?
 
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